Thursday, 12 December 2019
Wednesday, 11 December 2019
Tuesday, 10 December 2019
Get Valid 1V0-701 Dumps with 100% Passing Guarantee | RealExamDUmps
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Monday, 9 December 2019
CompTIA CV0-002 Dumps PDF with Outstanding Performance in Final Exam
Question: 1
Which of the following storage technologies is IP-based?
A. SCSI
B. DAS
C. FCP
D. NAS
Answer: D
Question: 2
An administrator has created a new virtual server according to specifications and verified that TCP/IP
settings are correct. When the VM is powered on, however, an error message indicates that a network
card MAC address conflict exists. Which of the following would resolve this issue?
A. Remove the virtual NIC and configure another one.
B. Add an additional NIC with a loopback interface.
C. Ping the IP address to determine the location of the conflict.
D. Change the MAC to ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff and obtain a new address.
Answer: C
Question: 3
An administrator is no longer receiving alerting messages from the web server platform that recently
failed over to a new secondary datacenter due to a power failure. Which of the following is the cause of
the problem?
A. Port 21 in only allowed inbound at the primary datacenter
B. Port 22 to the log server is blocked outbound
C. Port 162 in DMZ is blocked inbound
D. Port 162 in DMZ is blocked outbound
Answer: C
Question: 4
An organization wants to create a server VM that is segregated from the rest of the servers. Which of
the following should the server administrator configure?
A. Virtual NIC
B. Trunk port
C. Virtual memory
D. VPN connection
Answer: A
Question: 5
Which of the following ensures that there is enough space for vendors to install their programs and run
the software they will be managing for various SaaS products?
A. Network isolation
B. Laws and regulations
C. Multi-tenancy
D. Data segregation
Answer: C
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Friday, 6 December 2019
Amazon ANS-C00 dumps with Up to Date Free Practice Questions | RealExamDumps
Sample Questions
Question: 1
Your organization’s corporate website must be available on www.acme.com and acme.com.
How should you configure Amazon Route 53 to meet this requirement?
A. Configure acme.com with an ALIAS record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with an ALIAS record targeting the ELB.
B. Configure acme.com with an A record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the acme.com record.
C. Configure acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the acme.com record.
D. Configure acme.com using a second ALIAS record with the ELB target. www.acme.com using a PTR record with the acme.com record target.
Answer: D
Question: 2
You are building an application in AWS that requires Amazon Elastic MapReduce (Amazon EMR). The application needs to resolve hostnames in your internal, on-premises Active Directory domain. You update your DHCP Options Set in the VPC to point to a pair of Active Directory integrated DNS servers running in your VPC. Which action is required to support a successful Amazon EMR cluster launch?
A. Add a conditional forwarder to the Amazon-provided DNS server.
B. Enable seamless domain join for the Amazon EMR cluster.
C. Launch an AD connector for the internal domain.
D. Configure an Amazon Route 53 private zone for the EMR cluster.
Answer: B
Explanation:
References:
https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/security/how-to-connect-your-on-premises-active-directory-toawsusingad-connector/
Question: 3
You have a three-tier web application with separate subnets for Web, Applications, and Database tiers. Your CISO suspects your application will be the target of malicious activity. You are tasked with notifying the security team in the event your application is port scanned by external systems. Which two AWS Services cloud you leverage to build an automated notification system? (Select two.)
A. Internet gateway
B. VPC Flow Logs
C. AWS CloudTrail
D. Lambda
E. AWS Inspector
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
References:
https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/security/how-to-receive-alerts-when-specific-apis-are-called-byusingaws-cloudtrail-amazon-sns-and-aws-lambda/
Question: 4
You are designing the network infrastructure for an application server in Amazon VPC. Users will access all the application instances from the Internet and from an on-premises network. The onpremises network is connected to your VPC over an AWS Direct Connect link. How should you design routing to meet these requirements?
A. Configure a single routing table with two default routes: one to the Internet via an IGW, the other
to the on-premises network via the VGW. Use this routing table across all subnets in your VPC.
B. Configure two routing tables: one that has a default route via the IGW, and another that has a
default route via the VGW. Associate both routing tables with each VPC subnet.
C. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the IGW. Propagate a default route via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with all VPC subnet.
D. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the IGW. Propagate specific routes for the
on-premises networks via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing
table with all VPC subnets.
Answer: D
Question: 5
Your company decides to use Amazon S3 to augment its on-premises data store. Instead of using the company’s highly controlled, on-premises Internet gateway, a Direct Connect connection is ordered to provide high bandwidth, low latency access to S3. Since the company does not own a publically routable IPv4 address block, a request was made to AWS for an AWS-owned address for a Public Virtual Interface (VIF). The security team is calling this new connection a “backdoor”, and you have been asked to clarify the risk to the company.
Which concern from the security team is valid and should be addressed?
A. AWS advertises its aggregate routes to the Internet allowing anyone on the Internet to reach the router.
B. Direct Connect customers with a Public VIF in the same region could directly reach the router.
C. EC2 instances in the same region with access to the Internet could directly reach the router.
D. The S3 service could reach the router through a pre-configured VPC Endpoint.
Answer: A
Moreover:
Saturday, 30 November 2019
Choose Microsoft MB2-716 dumps for IT exam preparation and start your bright career
There is rush of candidates who aspire to get certified by passing Microsoft MB2-716 exam so the competition is high. Now for dominant position in the field you need to show distinct grades in the final exam as well as good practice later. Our qualified experts have designed Microsoft MB2-716 dumps specifically for this IT certification. A concise but comprehensive explanation about every exam topic is available in this handy study guide. Experts have verified it unanimously and it’s available now on RealExamDumps.us. Very accurate and authentic information has been filled in this smart study material. You can download it at very reasonable and affordable price. You will find a bundle of services with Microsoft MB2-716 questions and answers to help you better prepare for your IT exam.
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Friday, 29 November 2019
Huawei H12-211 Dumps with Huawei H12-211 Question Answers
Question No 1
Which of the following authentication methods are supported for Telnet users? (Choose three)
A. Password authentication
B. AAA local authentication
C. MD5 authentication
D. No authentication
Answer: A, B, D
Question No 2
Which authentication modes does AAA support? (Choose three).
A. None
B. Local
C. Radius
D. 802.1X
Answer: A, B, C
Question No 3
Which of the following parameters is not used by Advanced ACL?
A. Source interface
B. Destination port number
C. Protocol number
D. Time-range
Answer: A
Question No 4
Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has configured ACL 2000 to filter packets on RTA, as shown. Which of following statements regarding the subsequent behavior are correct? (Choose two).
A. RTA will forward packets received from Host A.
B. RTA will drop packets received from Host A.
C. RTA will forward packets received from Host B.
D. RTA will drop packets received from Host B.
Answer: B, C
Question No 5
On Huawei switch, which of the following commands can be used to set port duplex mode as "auto negotiation"? (Choose two)
A. duplex negotiation auto
B. duplex auto-negotiation
C. duplex auto
D. undo duplex
Answer: C, D
For More Info:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/huawei/h12-211-question-answers.html
Which of the following authentication methods are supported for Telnet users? (Choose three)
A. Password authentication
B. AAA local authentication
C. MD5 authentication
D. No authentication
Answer: A, B, D
Question No 2
Which authentication modes does AAA support? (Choose three).
A. None
B. Local
C. Radius
D. 802.1X
Answer: A, B, C
Question No 3
Which of the following parameters is not used by Advanced ACL?
A. Source interface
B. Destination port number
C. Protocol number
D. Time-range
Answer: A
Question No 4
Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has configured ACL 2000 to filter packets on RTA, as shown. Which of following statements regarding the subsequent behavior are correct? (Choose two).
A. RTA will forward packets received from Host A.
B. RTA will drop packets received from Host A.
C. RTA will forward packets received from Host B.
D. RTA will drop packets received from Host B.
Answer: B, C
Question No 5
On Huawei switch, which of the following commands can be used to set port duplex mode as "auto negotiation"? (Choose two)
A. duplex negotiation auto
B. duplex auto-negotiation
C. duplex auto
D. undo duplex
Answer: C, D
For More Info:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/huawei/h12-211-question-answers.html
Thursday, 28 November 2019
Get PMI CAPM Exam Dumps | PMI CAPM Practice Test Questions
Question No 1
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
A. Cost management plan.
B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.
Answer: A
Question No 2
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurement is provided by:
A. A risk urgency assessment.
B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.
Answer: C
Question No 3
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing
Answer: C
Question No 4
The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
A. recognition and rewards
B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs
Answer: D
Question No 5
Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?
A. Critical path method
B. Critical chain method
C. Resource leveling
D. Schedule network analysis
Answer: B
For More Info:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/pmi/capm-question-answers.html
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
A. Cost management plan.
B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.
Answer: A
Question No 2
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurement is provided by:
A. A risk urgency assessment.
B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.
Answer: C
Question No 3
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing
Answer: C
Question No 4
The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
A. recognition and rewards
B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs
Answer: D
Question No 5
Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?
A. Critical path method
B. Critical chain method
C. Resource leveling
D. Schedule network analysis
Answer: B
For More Info:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/pmi/capm-question-answers.html
Latest Blue Prism AD01 Dumps with PDF and Blue Prism AD01 Dumps Questions
Question No 1
How many Start Stages can a sub‐page in a Process have?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Any Number
Answer: B
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https://www.realexamdumps.us/blue-prism/ad01-question-answers.html
How many Start Stages can a sub‐page in a Process have?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Any Number
Answer: B
For More Info:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/blue-prism/ad01-question-answers.html
Wednesday, 27 November 2019
Oracle 1Z0-060 Exam Dumps | Oracle 1Z0-060 Practice Test Questions
Question No 1
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the listener registration process (LREG) process of each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directory.
Answer: C
Question No 2
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
Answer: B
Question No 3
What are three purposes of the RMAN “FROM” clause? (Choose three.)
A. to support PUSH-based active database duplication
B. to support synchronization of a standby database with the primary database in a Data environment
C. To support PULL-based active database duplication
D. To support file restores over the network in a Data Guard environment
E. To support file recovery over the network in a Data Guard environment
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
* With a control file autobackup, RMAN can recover the database even if the current control file, recovery catalog, and server parameter file are inaccessible.
* RMAN uses a recovery catalog to track filenames for all database files in a Data Guard environment. A recovery catalog is a database schema used by RMAN to store metadata about one or more Oracle databases. The catalog also records where the online redo logs, standby redo logs, tempfiles, archived redo logs, backup sets, and image copies are created.
Question No 4
You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle 12c database has significantly degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want to restart the database instance.How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA for analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Answer: B
Question No 5
Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled? (Choose three.)
A. Reduced logical I/O
B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O F. Reduced CPU utilization
Answer: B,C,F
Explanation:
* Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users—either one process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users. Most databases are multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple users simultaneously. Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database and applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance simultaneously while the system gives good performance.
* In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.
Moreover:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/oracle/1z0-060-question-answers.html
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the listener registration process (LREG) process of each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directory.
Answer: C
Question No 2
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
Answer: B
Question No 3
What are three purposes of the RMAN “FROM” clause? (Choose three.)
A. to support PUSH-based active database duplication
B. to support synchronization of a standby database with the primary database in a Data environment
C. To support PULL-based active database duplication
D. To support file restores over the network in a Data Guard environment
E. To support file recovery over the network in a Data Guard environment
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
* With a control file autobackup, RMAN can recover the database even if the current control file, recovery catalog, and server parameter file are inaccessible.
* RMAN uses a recovery catalog to track filenames for all database files in a Data Guard environment. A recovery catalog is a database schema used by RMAN to store metadata about one or more Oracle databases. The catalog also records where the online redo logs, standby redo logs, tempfiles, archived redo logs, backup sets, and image copies are created.
Question No 4
You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle 12c database has significantly degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want to restart the database instance.How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA for analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Answer: B
Question No 5
Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled? (Choose three.)
A. Reduced logical I/O
B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O F. Reduced CPU utilization
Answer: B,C,F
Explanation:
* Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users—either one process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users. Most databases are multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple users simultaneously. Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database and applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance simultaneously while the system gives good performance.
* In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.
Moreover:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/oracle/1z0-060-question-answers.html
Tuesday, 26 November 2019
Microsoft 70-461 Exam Dumps | Microsoft 70-461 Practice Test Questions
Question No 1
A local bank uses a SQL Server database to manage accounts. You are developing a stored procedure that contains multiple Transact-SQL INSERT statements. The stored procedure must use transaction management to handle errors. You need to ensure that the stored procedure rolls back the entire transaction if a run-time occurs. Which Transact-SQL statement should you add to the stored procedure?
A. SET ARITHABORT ON
B. SET NOEXEC ON
C. SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL ON
D. SET XACT_ABORT ON
Answer: D
Explanation:
SET XACT_ABORT specifies whether SQL Server automatically rolls back the current transaction when a Transact-SQL statement raises a run-time error.When SET XACT_ABORT is ON, if a Transact-SQL statement raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/set-xact-abort-transactsql?view=sql-server-2017
Question No 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create the Historical_Events table. You need to store dates by using the smallest possible storage size. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The size of a column with the DATE format is 3 bytes fixed.
Incorrect Answers:
G: The DATETIME data type storage size is 8 bytes.
H: datetime2 can be considered as an extension of the existing datetime type that has a larger date range, a larger default fractional precision, and optional user-specified precision.
I: The 26 DATETIMEOFFSET data type storage size is 10 bytes.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/data-types/date-transact-sql?view=sql-server2017
Question No 3
You use a Microsoft Azure SQL DataBase instance. The instance contains a table named Customers that has columns named Id, Name, and IsPriority. You need to create a view named VwPriorityCustomers that: returns rows from Customer that have a value of True in the IsPriority column, and does not allow columns to be altered or dropped in the underlying table. Which Transact-SQL statement shoul you run?
A. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1 WITH CHECK OPTION
B. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers WITH VIEW_METADATA AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1
C. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers WITH ENCRYPTION AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1
D. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers WITH SCHEMABINDING AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1
Answer: D
Explanation:
SCHEMABINDING binds the view to the schema of the underlying table or tables. When SCHEMABINDING is specified, the base table or tables cannot be modified in a way that would affect the view definition.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-view-transact-sql?view=sqlserver-2017
Moreover:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/microsoft/70-461-question-answers.html
A local bank uses a SQL Server database to manage accounts. You are developing a stored procedure that contains multiple Transact-SQL INSERT statements. The stored procedure must use transaction management to handle errors. You need to ensure that the stored procedure rolls back the entire transaction if a run-time occurs. Which Transact-SQL statement should you add to the stored procedure?
A. SET ARITHABORT ON
B. SET NOEXEC ON
C. SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL ON
D. SET XACT_ABORT ON
Answer: D
Explanation:
SET XACT_ABORT specifies whether SQL Server automatically rolls back the current transaction when a Transact-SQL statement raises a run-time error.When SET XACT_ABORT is ON, if a Transact-SQL statement raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/set-xact-abort-transactsql?view=sql-server-2017
Question No 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create the Historical_Events table. You need to store dates by using the smallest possible storage size. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The size of a column with the DATE format is 3 bytes fixed.
Incorrect Answers:
G: The DATETIME data type storage size is 8 bytes.
H: datetime2 can be considered as an extension of the existing datetime type that has a larger date range, a larger default fractional precision, and optional user-specified precision.
I: The 26 DATETIMEOFFSET data type storage size is 10 bytes.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/data-types/date-transact-sql?view=sql-server2017
Question No 3
You use a Microsoft Azure SQL DataBase instance. The instance contains a table named Customers that has columns named Id, Name, and IsPriority. You need to create a view named VwPriorityCustomers that: returns rows from Customer that have a value of True in the IsPriority column, and does not allow columns to be altered or dropped in the underlying table. Which Transact-SQL statement shoul you run?
A. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1 WITH CHECK OPTION
B. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers WITH VIEW_METADATA AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1
C. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers WITH ENCRYPTION AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1
D. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers WITH SCHEMABINDING AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1
Answer: D
Explanation:
SCHEMABINDING binds the view to the schema of the underlying table or tables. When SCHEMABINDING is specified, the base table or tables cannot be modified in a way that would affect the view definition.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-view-transact-sql?view=sqlserver-2017
Moreover:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/microsoft/70-461-question-answers.html
Monday, 25 November 2019
Up to Date HP HPE6-A44 Dumps PDF - 100% Success with these Questions HP HPE6-A44
Question No 1
An administrator adds local administrative accounts to manage the Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Which role should be assigned to an administrator who needs to only generate reports and monitor WLANS and ports?
A. Location-api-management
B. Network-operations
C. Root
D. AP-provisioning
Answer: B
Question No 2
An administrator supports a cluster of four Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs) with management addresses of 10.1.100.101, 10.1.100.102, 10.1.100.103, and 10.1.202.181. The administrator accesses an AP associated with this cluster, reboots it and accesses apboot mode. The administrator executes the printenv command. Which AP parameter contains the IP addresses of the cluster members that the AP should use to connect to the cluster?
A. Nodelist
B. Servername
C. Master_ip
D. Cfg_lms
Answer: B
Question No 3
A VIA client tries to initially connect to corporate office controller through an intermediate firewall. However, the VPN connection fails. The administrator examines the firewall rules and determines that rules for UDP 4500 and UDP 500 are configured. Which additional protocol must be allowed in the firewall rules to resolve this connection failure?
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 443
C. UDP 8200
D. ESP
Answer: D
Question No 4
An administrator has a cluster of Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). The administrator wants to manually reboot one of the controllers. Before rebooting, which command should the administrator use to move the APs?
A. apmove
B. lc-cluster move ap
C. active-ap-rebalance
D. active-ap-lb
Answer: B
Question No 5
Which Aruba Unified Communications and Collaboration (UCC) deployment mode should be used when UCC is disabled on the Mobility Controllers (MCs)?
A. Heuristics mode
B. WMM mode
C. ALG mode
D. SDN-API mode
Answer: B
For more info:
An administrator adds local administrative accounts to manage the Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Which role should be assigned to an administrator who needs to only generate reports and monitor WLANS and ports?
A. Location-api-management
B. Network-operations
C. Root
D. AP-provisioning
Answer: B
Question No 2
An administrator supports a cluster of four Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs) with management addresses of 10.1.100.101, 10.1.100.102, 10.1.100.103, and 10.1.202.181. The administrator accesses an AP associated with this cluster, reboots it and accesses apboot mode. The administrator executes the printenv command. Which AP parameter contains the IP addresses of the cluster members that the AP should use to connect to the cluster?
A. Nodelist
B. Servername
C. Master_ip
D. Cfg_lms
Answer: B
Question No 3
A VIA client tries to initially connect to corporate office controller through an intermediate firewall. However, the VPN connection fails. The administrator examines the firewall rules and determines that rules for UDP 4500 and UDP 500 are configured. Which additional protocol must be allowed in the firewall rules to resolve this connection failure?
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 443
C. UDP 8200
D. ESP
Answer: D
Question No 4
An administrator has a cluster of Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). The administrator wants to manually reboot one of the controllers. Before rebooting, which command should the administrator use to move the APs?
A. apmove
B. lc-cluster move ap
C. active-ap-rebalance
D. active-ap-lb
Answer: B
Question No 5
Which Aruba Unified Communications and Collaboration (UCC) deployment mode should be used when UCC is disabled on the Mobility Controllers (MCs)?
A. Heuristics mode
B. WMM mode
C. ALG mode
D. SDN-API mode
Answer: B
For more info:
Citrix 1Y0-402 Exam Dumps PDF | Citrix 1Y0-402 Exam Study Material
Question No 1
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. While designing Universal Print server (UPS) for the customer, the architect is asked to ensure that the UPS design can handle 500 simultaneous print jobs per minute. What must the architect deploy to support the load estimated by the customer?
A. Two UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
B. Ten UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
C. Five UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
D. Two UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
E. Five UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
F. Ten UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
Answer: E
Question No 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing an environment for a large company. The company has identified the following user groups and requirements. Product Managers - Typically, they work from inside the company network but are able to work from home. They need to use a variety of standard productivity and web-based SaaS applications. Field Sales Engineers - They frequently work with mobile devices and tend to access the environment externally. They need access to sales tools and the front-end of the customer database. Web Developers - Internal and remote workers who use specialized hardware with a graphics card to handle resource-intensive applications. Which FlexCast model should the architect assign to Web Developers?
A. VM Hosted Applications
B. Published Apps
C. Published Desktops
D. Hosted VDI
Answer: B
Question No 3
A Citrix Architect needs to conduct a capabilities assessment for an organization that wants to design and build a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Which four capabilities will directly influence whether the existing Citrix administrative team will have the capacity to support the new environment? (Choose four.)
A. Network architecture
B. Current backup solutions
C. Users and applications D. Existing XenApp and XenDesktop environments
E. Training and certifications of support staff and users
F. Current storage solutions
G. Image management processes
Answer: A,C,D,F
Question No 4
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Currently, the environment is configured with two locations with identical XenDesktop Sites. Each Site has two Delivery Controllers, two StoreFront servers, and one NetScaler high availability pair. The same applications have been published from both Sites for all the users. Two Zones (Zone A and Zone B) are configured in each Site with one Controller in each zone. The Microsoft Exchange server is only accessible from Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in Zone A in each Site. The following access requirements have been identified: Users should have a single URL when accessing resources from different Sites. Users should always connect to the datacenter closest to their location. Applications added to Favorites within Citrix Receiver should be retained when accessed from different Sites. Launched applications and desktops should always connect through a local NetScaler. No duplication of applications published from different Sites. Microsoft Outlook should always launch in Zone A The architect should recommend configuring Optimal Gateway routing on ___________across both locations to ensure that users connect through a local NetScaler. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Delivery Controllers
B. StoreFront servers
C. Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) vServers
D. NetScaler appliances
Answer: B
Moreover:
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. While designing Universal Print server (UPS) for the customer, the architect is asked to ensure that the UPS design can handle 500 simultaneous print jobs per minute. What must the architect deploy to support the load estimated by the customer?
A. Two UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
B. Ten UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
C. Five UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
D. Two UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
E. Five UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
F. Ten UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
Answer: E
Question No 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing an environment for a large company. The company has identified the following user groups and requirements. Product Managers - Typically, they work from inside the company network but are able to work from home. They need to use a variety of standard productivity and web-based SaaS applications. Field Sales Engineers - They frequently work with mobile devices and tend to access the environment externally. They need access to sales tools and the front-end of the customer database. Web Developers - Internal and remote workers who use specialized hardware with a graphics card to handle resource-intensive applications. Which FlexCast model should the architect assign to Web Developers?
A. VM Hosted Applications
B. Published Apps
C. Published Desktops
D. Hosted VDI
Answer: B
Question No 3
A Citrix Architect needs to conduct a capabilities assessment for an organization that wants to design and build a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Which four capabilities will directly influence whether the existing Citrix administrative team will have the capacity to support the new environment? (Choose four.)
A. Network architecture
B. Current backup solutions
C. Users and applications D. Existing XenApp and XenDesktop environments
E. Training and certifications of support staff and users
F. Current storage solutions
G. Image management processes
Answer: A,C,D,F
Question No 4
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Currently, the environment is configured with two locations with identical XenDesktop Sites. Each Site has two Delivery Controllers, two StoreFront servers, and one NetScaler high availability pair. The same applications have been published from both Sites for all the users. Two Zones (Zone A and Zone B) are configured in each Site with one Controller in each zone. The Microsoft Exchange server is only accessible from Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in Zone A in each Site. The following access requirements have been identified: Users should have a single URL when accessing resources from different Sites. Users should always connect to the datacenter closest to their location. Applications added to Favorites within Citrix Receiver should be retained when accessed from different Sites. Launched applications and desktops should always connect through a local NetScaler. No duplication of applications published from different Sites. Microsoft Outlook should always launch in Zone A The architect should recommend configuring Optimal Gateway routing on ___________across both locations to ensure that users connect through a local NetScaler. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Delivery Controllers
B. StoreFront servers
C. Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) vServers
D. NetScaler appliances
Answer: B
Moreover:
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