Thursday, 12 December 2019
Wednesday, 11 December 2019
Tuesday, 10 December 2019
Get Valid 1V0-701 Dumps with 100% Passing Guarantee | RealExamDUmps
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Monday, 9 December 2019
CompTIA CV0-002 Dumps PDF with Outstanding Performance in Final Exam
Question: 1
Which of the following storage technologies is IP-based?
A. SCSI
B. DAS
C. FCP
D. NAS
Answer: D
Question: 2
An administrator has created a new virtual server according to specifications and verified that TCP/IP
settings are correct. When the VM is powered on, however, an error message indicates that a network
card MAC address conflict exists. Which of the following would resolve this issue?
A. Remove the virtual NIC and configure another one.
B. Add an additional NIC with a loopback interface.
C. Ping the IP address to determine the location of the conflict.
D. Change the MAC to ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff and obtain a new address.
Answer: C
Question: 3
An administrator is no longer receiving alerting messages from the web server platform that recently
failed over to a new secondary datacenter due to a power failure. Which of the following is the cause of
the problem?
A. Port 21 in only allowed inbound at the primary datacenter
B. Port 22 to the log server is blocked outbound
C. Port 162 in DMZ is blocked inbound
D. Port 162 in DMZ is blocked outbound
Answer: C
Question: 4
An organization wants to create a server VM that is segregated from the rest of the servers. Which of
the following should the server administrator configure?
A. Virtual NIC
B. Trunk port
C. Virtual memory
D. VPN connection
Answer: A
Question: 5
Which of the following ensures that there is enough space for vendors to install their programs and run
the software they will be managing for various SaaS products?
A. Network isolation
B. Laws and regulations
C. Multi-tenancy
D. Data segregation
Answer: C
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Friday, 6 December 2019
Amazon ANS-C00 dumps with Up to Date Free Practice Questions | RealExamDumps
Sample Questions
Question: 1
Your organization’s corporate website must be available on www.acme.com and acme.com.
How should you configure Amazon Route 53 to meet this requirement?
A. Configure acme.com with an ALIAS record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with an ALIAS record targeting the ELB.
B. Configure acme.com with an A record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the acme.com record.
C. Configure acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the ELB. www.acme.com with a CNAME record targeting the acme.com record.
D. Configure acme.com using a second ALIAS record with the ELB target. www.acme.com using a PTR record with the acme.com record target.
Answer: D
Question: 2
You are building an application in AWS that requires Amazon Elastic MapReduce (Amazon EMR). The application needs to resolve hostnames in your internal, on-premises Active Directory domain. You update your DHCP Options Set in the VPC to point to a pair of Active Directory integrated DNS servers running in your VPC. Which action is required to support a successful Amazon EMR cluster launch?
A. Add a conditional forwarder to the Amazon-provided DNS server.
B. Enable seamless domain join for the Amazon EMR cluster.
C. Launch an AD connector for the internal domain.
D. Configure an Amazon Route 53 private zone for the EMR cluster.
Answer: B
Explanation:
References:
https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/security/how-to-connect-your-on-premises-active-directory-toawsusingad-connector/
Question: 3
You have a three-tier web application with separate subnets for Web, Applications, and Database tiers. Your CISO suspects your application will be the target of malicious activity. You are tasked with notifying the security team in the event your application is port scanned by external systems. Which two AWS Services cloud you leverage to build an automated notification system? (Select two.)
A. Internet gateway
B. VPC Flow Logs
C. AWS CloudTrail
D. Lambda
E. AWS Inspector
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
References:
https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/security/how-to-receive-alerts-when-specific-apis-are-called-byusingaws-cloudtrail-amazon-sns-and-aws-lambda/
Question: 4
You are designing the network infrastructure for an application server in Amazon VPC. Users will access all the application instances from the Internet and from an on-premises network. The onpremises network is connected to your VPC over an AWS Direct Connect link. How should you design routing to meet these requirements?
A. Configure a single routing table with two default routes: one to the Internet via an IGW, the other
to the on-premises network via the VGW. Use this routing table across all subnets in your VPC.
B. Configure two routing tables: one that has a default route via the IGW, and another that has a
default route via the VGW. Associate both routing tables with each VPC subnet.
C. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the IGW. Propagate a default route via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with all VPC subnet.
D. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the IGW. Propagate specific routes for the
on-premises networks via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing
table with all VPC subnets.
Answer: D
Question: 5
Your company decides to use Amazon S3 to augment its on-premises data store. Instead of using the company’s highly controlled, on-premises Internet gateway, a Direct Connect connection is ordered to provide high bandwidth, low latency access to S3. Since the company does not own a publically routable IPv4 address block, a request was made to AWS for an AWS-owned address for a Public Virtual Interface (VIF). The security team is calling this new connection a “backdoor”, and you have been asked to clarify the risk to the company.
Which concern from the security team is valid and should be addressed?
A. AWS advertises its aggregate routes to the Internet allowing anyone on the Internet to reach the router.
B. Direct Connect customers with a Public VIF in the same region could directly reach the router.
C. EC2 instances in the same region with access to the Internet could directly reach the router.
D. The S3 service could reach the router through a pre-configured VPC Endpoint.
Answer: A
Moreover:
Saturday, 30 November 2019
Choose Microsoft MB2-716 dumps for IT exam preparation and start your bright career
There is rush of candidates who aspire to get certified by passing Microsoft MB2-716 exam so the competition is high. Now for dominant position in the field you need to show distinct grades in the final exam as well as good practice later. Our qualified experts have designed Microsoft MB2-716 dumps specifically for this IT certification. A concise but comprehensive explanation about every exam topic is available in this handy study guide. Experts have verified it unanimously and it’s available now on RealExamDumps.us. Very accurate and authentic information has been filled in this smart study material. You can download it at very reasonable and affordable price. You will find a bundle of services with Microsoft MB2-716 questions and answers to help you better prepare for your IT exam.
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Friday, 29 November 2019
Huawei H12-211 Dumps with Huawei H12-211 Question Answers
Question No 1
Which of the following authentication methods are supported for Telnet users? (Choose three)
A. Password authentication
B. AAA local authentication
C. MD5 authentication
D. No authentication
Answer: A, B, D
Question No 2
Which authentication modes does AAA support? (Choose three).
A. None
B. Local
C. Radius
D. 802.1X
Answer: A, B, C
Question No 3
Which of the following parameters is not used by Advanced ACL?
A. Source interface
B. Destination port number
C. Protocol number
D. Time-range
Answer: A
Question No 4
Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has configured ACL 2000 to filter packets on RTA, as shown. Which of following statements regarding the subsequent behavior are correct? (Choose two).
A. RTA will forward packets received from Host A.
B. RTA will drop packets received from Host A.
C. RTA will forward packets received from Host B.
D. RTA will drop packets received from Host B.
Answer: B, C
Question No 5
On Huawei switch, which of the following commands can be used to set port duplex mode as "auto negotiation"? (Choose two)
A. duplex negotiation auto
B. duplex auto-negotiation
C. duplex auto
D. undo duplex
Answer: C, D
For More Info:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/huawei/h12-211-question-answers.html
Which of the following authentication methods are supported for Telnet users? (Choose three)
A. Password authentication
B. AAA local authentication
C. MD5 authentication
D. No authentication
Answer: A, B, D
Question No 2
Which authentication modes does AAA support? (Choose three).
A. None
B. Local
C. Radius
D. 802.1X
Answer: A, B, C
Question No 3
Which of the following parameters is not used by Advanced ACL?
A. Source interface
B. Destination port number
C. Protocol number
D. Time-range
Answer: A
Question No 4
Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has configured ACL 2000 to filter packets on RTA, as shown. Which of following statements regarding the subsequent behavior are correct? (Choose two).
A. RTA will forward packets received from Host A.
B. RTA will drop packets received from Host A.
C. RTA will forward packets received from Host B.
D. RTA will drop packets received from Host B.
Answer: B, C
Question No 5
On Huawei switch, which of the following commands can be used to set port duplex mode as "auto negotiation"? (Choose two)
A. duplex negotiation auto
B. duplex auto-negotiation
C. duplex auto
D. undo duplex
Answer: C, D
For More Info:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/huawei/h12-211-question-answers.html
Thursday, 28 November 2019
Get PMI CAPM Exam Dumps | PMI CAPM Practice Test Questions
Question No 1
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
A. Cost management plan.
B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.
Answer: A
Question No 2
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurement is provided by:
A. A risk urgency assessment.
B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.
Answer: C
Question No 3
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing
Answer: C
Question No 4
The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
A. recognition and rewards
B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs
Answer: D
Question No 5
Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?
A. Critical path method
B. Critical chain method
C. Resource leveling
D. Schedule network analysis
Answer: B
For More Info:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/pmi/capm-question-answers.html
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
A. Cost management plan.
B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.
Answer: A
Question No 2
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurement is provided by:
A. A risk urgency assessment.
B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.
Answer: C
Question No 3
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing
Answer: C
Question No 4
The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
A. recognition and rewards
B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs
Answer: D
Question No 5
Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?
A. Critical path method
B. Critical chain method
C. Resource leveling
D. Schedule network analysis
Answer: B
For More Info:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/pmi/capm-question-answers.html
Latest Blue Prism AD01 Dumps with PDF and Blue Prism AD01 Dumps Questions
Question No 1
How many Start Stages can a sub‐page in a Process have?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Any Number
Answer: B
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https://www.realexamdumps.us/blue-prism/ad01-question-answers.html
How many Start Stages can a sub‐page in a Process have?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Any Number
Answer: B
For More Info:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/blue-prism/ad01-question-answers.html
Wednesday, 27 November 2019
Oracle 1Z0-060 Exam Dumps | Oracle 1Z0-060 Practice Test Questions
Question No 1
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the listener registration process (LREG) process of each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directory.
Answer: C
Question No 2
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
Answer: B
Question No 3
What are three purposes of the RMAN “FROM” clause? (Choose three.)
A. to support PUSH-based active database duplication
B. to support synchronization of a standby database with the primary database in a Data environment
C. To support PULL-based active database duplication
D. To support file restores over the network in a Data Guard environment
E. To support file recovery over the network in a Data Guard environment
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
* With a control file autobackup, RMAN can recover the database even if the current control file, recovery catalog, and server parameter file are inaccessible.
* RMAN uses a recovery catalog to track filenames for all database files in a Data Guard environment. A recovery catalog is a database schema used by RMAN to store metadata about one or more Oracle databases. The catalog also records where the online redo logs, standby redo logs, tempfiles, archived redo logs, backup sets, and image copies are created.
Question No 4
You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle 12c database has significantly degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want to restart the database instance.How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA for analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Answer: B
Question No 5
Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled? (Choose three.)
A. Reduced logical I/O
B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O F. Reduced CPU utilization
Answer: B,C,F
Explanation:
* Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users—either one process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users. Most databases are multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple users simultaneously. Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database and applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance simultaneously while the system gives good performance.
* In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.
Moreover:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/oracle/1z0-060-question-answers.html
Which statement is true about Oracle Net Listener?
A. It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user connections.
B. A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C. Service registration with the listener is performed by the listener registration process (LREG) process of each database instance.
D. The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E. The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directory.
Answer: C
Question No 2
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?
A. Oracle Data Pump
B. Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) C. Oracle Label Security
D. Oracle Database Vault
E. Oracle Real Application Security
Answer: B
Question No 3
What are three purposes of the RMAN “FROM” clause? (Choose three.)
A. to support PUSH-based active database duplication
B. to support synchronization of a standby database with the primary database in a Data environment
C. To support PULL-based active database duplication
D. To support file restores over the network in a Data Guard environment
E. To support file recovery over the network in a Data Guard environment
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
* With a control file autobackup, RMAN can recover the database even if the current control file, recovery catalog, and server parameter file are inaccessible.
* RMAN uses a recovery catalog to track filenames for all database files in a Data Guard environment. A recovery catalog is a database schema used by RMAN to store metadata about one or more Oracle databases. The catalog also records where the online redo logs, standby redo logs, tempfiles, archived redo logs, backup sets, and image copies are created.
Question No 4
You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle 12c database has significantly degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want to restart the database instance.How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA for analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Answer: B
Question No 5
Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is enabled? (Choose three.)
A. Reduced logical I/O
B. Reduced virtual memory utilization
C. Improved parallel Execution performance
D. Improved Serial Execution performance
E. Reduced physical I/O F. Reduced CPU utilization
Answer: B,C,F
Explanation:
* Multiprocess and Multithreaded Oracle Database Systems Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to run different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the users—either one process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple users. Most databases are multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing data needed by multiple users simultaneously. Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database and applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an instance simultaneously while the system gives good performance.
* In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle processes to execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.
Moreover:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/oracle/1z0-060-question-answers.html
Tuesday, 26 November 2019
Microsoft 70-461 Exam Dumps | Microsoft 70-461 Practice Test Questions
Question No 1
A local bank uses a SQL Server database to manage accounts. You are developing a stored procedure that contains multiple Transact-SQL INSERT statements. The stored procedure must use transaction management to handle errors. You need to ensure that the stored procedure rolls back the entire transaction if a run-time occurs. Which Transact-SQL statement should you add to the stored procedure?
A. SET ARITHABORT ON
B. SET NOEXEC ON
C. SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL ON
D. SET XACT_ABORT ON
Answer: D
Explanation:
SET XACT_ABORT specifies whether SQL Server automatically rolls back the current transaction when a Transact-SQL statement raises a run-time error.When SET XACT_ABORT is ON, if a Transact-SQL statement raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/set-xact-abort-transactsql?view=sql-server-2017
Question No 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create the Historical_Events table. You need to store dates by using the smallest possible storage size. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The size of a column with the DATE format is 3 bytes fixed.
Incorrect Answers:
G: The DATETIME data type storage size is 8 bytes.
H: datetime2 can be considered as an extension of the existing datetime type that has a larger date range, a larger default fractional precision, and optional user-specified precision.
I: The 26 DATETIMEOFFSET data type storage size is 10 bytes.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/data-types/date-transact-sql?view=sql-server2017
Question No 3
You use a Microsoft Azure SQL DataBase instance. The instance contains a table named Customers that has columns named Id, Name, and IsPriority. You need to create a view named VwPriorityCustomers that: returns rows from Customer that have a value of True in the IsPriority column, and does not allow columns to be altered or dropped in the underlying table. Which Transact-SQL statement shoul you run?
A. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1 WITH CHECK OPTION
B. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers WITH VIEW_METADATA AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1
C. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers WITH ENCRYPTION AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1
D. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers WITH SCHEMABINDING AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1
Answer: D
Explanation:
SCHEMABINDING binds the view to the schema of the underlying table or tables. When SCHEMABINDING is specified, the base table or tables cannot be modified in a way that would affect the view definition.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-view-transact-sql?view=sqlserver-2017
Moreover:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/microsoft/70-461-question-answers.html
A local bank uses a SQL Server database to manage accounts. You are developing a stored procedure that contains multiple Transact-SQL INSERT statements. The stored procedure must use transaction management to handle errors. You need to ensure that the stored procedure rolls back the entire transaction if a run-time occurs. Which Transact-SQL statement should you add to the stored procedure?
A. SET ARITHABORT ON
B. SET NOEXEC ON
C. SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL ON
D. SET XACT_ABORT ON
Answer: D
Explanation:
SET XACT_ABORT specifies whether SQL Server automatically rolls back the current transaction when a Transact-SQL statement raises a run-time error.When SET XACT_ABORT is ON, if a Transact-SQL statement raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/set-xact-abort-transactsql?view=sql-server-2017
Question No 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create the Historical_Events table. You need to store dates by using the smallest possible storage size. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The size of a column with the DATE format is 3 bytes fixed.
Incorrect Answers:
G: The DATETIME data type storage size is 8 bytes.
H: datetime2 can be considered as an extension of the existing datetime type that has a larger date range, a larger default fractional precision, and optional user-specified precision.
I: The 26 DATETIMEOFFSET data type storage size is 10 bytes.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/data-types/date-transact-sql?view=sql-server2017
Question No 3
You use a Microsoft Azure SQL DataBase instance. The instance contains a table named Customers that has columns named Id, Name, and IsPriority. You need to create a view named VwPriorityCustomers that: returns rows from Customer that have a value of True in the IsPriority column, and does not allow columns to be altered or dropped in the underlying table. Which Transact-SQL statement shoul you run?
A. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1 WITH CHECK OPTION
B. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers WITH VIEW_METADATA AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1
C. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers WITH ENCRYPTION AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1
D. CREATE VIEW VwPriorityCustomers WITH SCHEMABINDING AS SELECT Id, Name FROM dbo.Customers WHERE IsPriority=1
Answer: D
Explanation:
SCHEMABINDING binds the view to the schema of the underlying table or tables. When SCHEMABINDING is specified, the base table or tables cannot be modified in a way that would affect the view definition.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/create-view-transact-sql?view=sqlserver-2017
Moreover:
https://www.realexamdumps.us/microsoft/70-461-question-answers.html
Monday, 25 November 2019
Up to Date HP HPE6-A44 Dumps PDF - 100% Success with these Questions HP HPE6-A44
Question No 1
An administrator adds local administrative accounts to manage the Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Which role should be assigned to an administrator who needs to only generate reports and monitor WLANS and ports?
A. Location-api-management
B. Network-operations
C. Root
D. AP-provisioning
Answer: B
Question No 2
An administrator supports a cluster of four Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs) with management addresses of 10.1.100.101, 10.1.100.102, 10.1.100.103, and 10.1.202.181. The administrator accesses an AP associated with this cluster, reboots it and accesses apboot mode. The administrator executes the printenv command. Which AP parameter contains the IP addresses of the cluster members that the AP should use to connect to the cluster?
A. Nodelist
B. Servername
C. Master_ip
D. Cfg_lms
Answer: B
Question No 3
A VIA client tries to initially connect to corporate office controller through an intermediate firewall. However, the VPN connection fails. The administrator examines the firewall rules and determines that rules for UDP 4500 and UDP 500 are configured. Which additional protocol must be allowed in the firewall rules to resolve this connection failure?
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 443
C. UDP 8200
D. ESP
Answer: D
Question No 4
An administrator has a cluster of Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). The administrator wants to manually reboot one of the controllers. Before rebooting, which command should the administrator use to move the APs?
A. apmove
B. lc-cluster move ap
C. active-ap-rebalance
D. active-ap-lb
Answer: B
Question No 5
Which Aruba Unified Communications and Collaboration (UCC) deployment mode should be used when UCC is disabled on the Mobility Controllers (MCs)?
A. Heuristics mode
B. WMM mode
C. ALG mode
D. SDN-API mode
Answer: B
For more info:
An administrator adds local administrative accounts to manage the Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Which role should be assigned to an administrator who needs to only generate reports and monitor WLANS and ports?
A. Location-api-management
B. Network-operations
C. Root
D. AP-provisioning
Answer: B
Question No 2
An administrator supports a cluster of four Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs) with management addresses of 10.1.100.101, 10.1.100.102, 10.1.100.103, and 10.1.202.181. The administrator accesses an AP associated with this cluster, reboots it and accesses apboot mode. The administrator executes the printenv command. Which AP parameter contains the IP addresses of the cluster members that the AP should use to connect to the cluster?
A. Nodelist
B. Servername
C. Master_ip
D. Cfg_lms
Answer: B
Question No 3
A VIA client tries to initially connect to corporate office controller through an intermediate firewall. However, the VPN connection fails. The administrator examines the firewall rules and determines that rules for UDP 4500 and UDP 500 are configured. Which additional protocol must be allowed in the firewall rules to resolve this connection failure?
A. TCP 22
B. TCP 443
C. UDP 8200
D. ESP
Answer: D
Question No 4
An administrator has a cluster of Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). The administrator wants to manually reboot one of the controllers. Before rebooting, which command should the administrator use to move the APs?
A. apmove
B. lc-cluster move ap
C. active-ap-rebalance
D. active-ap-lb
Answer: B
Question No 5
Which Aruba Unified Communications and Collaboration (UCC) deployment mode should be used when UCC is disabled on the Mobility Controllers (MCs)?
A. Heuristics mode
B. WMM mode
C. ALG mode
D. SDN-API mode
Answer: B
For more info:
Citrix 1Y0-402 Exam Dumps PDF | Citrix 1Y0-402 Exam Study Material
Question No 1
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. While designing Universal Print server (UPS) for the customer, the architect is asked to ensure that the UPS design can handle 500 simultaneous print jobs per minute. What must the architect deploy to support the load estimated by the customer?
A. Two UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
B. Ten UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
C. Five UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
D. Two UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
E. Five UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
F. Ten UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
Answer: E
Question No 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing an environment for a large company. The company has identified the following user groups and requirements. Product Managers - Typically, they work from inside the company network but are able to work from home. They need to use a variety of standard productivity and web-based SaaS applications. Field Sales Engineers - They frequently work with mobile devices and tend to access the environment externally. They need access to sales tools and the front-end of the customer database. Web Developers - Internal and remote workers who use specialized hardware with a graphics card to handle resource-intensive applications. Which FlexCast model should the architect assign to Web Developers?
A. VM Hosted Applications
B. Published Apps
C. Published Desktops
D. Hosted VDI
Answer: B
Question No 3
A Citrix Architect needs to conduct a capabilities assessment for an organization that wants to design and build a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Which four capabilities will directly influence whether the existing Citrix administrative team will have the capacity to support the new environment? (Choose four.)
A. Network architecture
B. Current backup solutions
C. Users and applications D. Existing XenApp and XenDesktop environments
E. Training and certifications of support staff and users
F. Current storage solutions
G. Image management processes
Answer: A,C,D,F
Question No 4
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Currently, the environment is configured with two locations with identical XenDesktop Sites. Each Site has two Delivery Controllers, two StoreFront servers, and one NetScaler high availability pair. The same applications have been published from both Sites for all the users. Two Zones (Zone A and Zone B) are configured in each Site with one Controller in each zone. The Microsoft Exchange server is only accessible from Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in Zone A in each Site. The following access requirements have been identified: Users should have a single URL when accessing resources from different Sites. Users should always connect to the datacenter closest to their location. Applications added to Favorites within Citrix Receiver should be retained when accessed from different Sites. Launched applications and desktops should always connect through a local NetScaler. No duplication of applications published from different Sites. Microsoft Outlook should always launch in Zone A The architect should recommend configuring Optimal Gateway routing on ___________across both locations to ensure that users connect through a local NetScaler. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Delivery Controllers
B. StoreFront servers
C. Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) vServers
D. NetScaler appliances
Answer: B
Moreover:
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. While designing Universal Print server (UPS) for the customer, the architect is asked to ensure that the UPS design can handle 500 simultaneous print jobs per minute. What must the architect deploy to support the load estimated by the customer?
A. Two UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
B. Ten UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
C. Five UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
D. Two UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
E. Five UPS servers and configure UPS for load balancing policy
F. Ten UPS servers and configure NetScaler load balancing
Answer: E
Question No 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing an environment for a large company. The company has identified the following user groups and requirements. Product Managers - Typically, they work from inside the company network but are able to work from home. They need to use a variety of standard productivity and web-based SaaS applications. Field Sales Engineers - They frequently work with mobile devices and tend to access the environment externally. They need access to sales tools and the front-end of the customer database. Web Developers - Internal and remote workers who use specialized hardware with a graphics card to handle resource-intensive applications. Which FlexCast model should the architect assign to Web Developers?
A. VM Hosted Applications
B. Published Apps
C. Published Desktops
D. Hosted VDI
Answer: B
Question No 3
A Citrix Architect needs to conduct a capabilities assessment for an organization that wants to design and build a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Which four capabilities will directly influence whether the existing Citrix administrative team will have the capacity to support the new environment? (Choose four.)
A. Network architecture
B. Current backup solutions
C. Users and applications D. Existing XenApp and XenDesktop environments
E. Training and certifications of support staff and users
F. Current storage solutions
G. Image management processes
Answer: A,C,D,F
Question No 4
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. Currently, the environment is configured with two locations with identical XenDesktop Sites. Each Site has two Delivery Controllers, two StoreFront servers, and one NetScaler high availability pair. The same applications have been published from both Sites for all the users. Two Zones (Zone A and Zone B) are configured in each Site with one Controller in each zone. The Microsoft Exchange server is only accessible from Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines in Zone A in each Site. The following access requirements have been identified: Users should have a single URL when accessing resources from different Sites. Users should always connect to the datacenter closest to their location. Applications added to Favorites within Citrix Receiver should be retained when accessed from different Sites. Launched applications and desktops should always connect through a local NetScaler. No duplication of applications published from different Sites. Microsoft Outlook should always launch in Zone A The architect should recommend configuring Optimal Gateway routing on ___________across both locations to ensure that users connect through a local NetScaler. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Delivery Controllers
B. StoreFront servers
C. Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) vServers
D. NetScaler appliances
Answer: B
Moreover:
Sunday, 24 November 2019
Get Eccouncil 312-50 Exam Dumps | Eccouncil 312-50 Practice Test Questions
Question No 1
Email is transmitted across the Internet using the Simple Mail Transport Protocol. SMTP does not encrypt email, leaving the information in the message vulnerable to being read by an unauthorized person. SMTP can upgrade a connection between two mail servers to use TLS. Email transmitted by SMTP over TLS is encrypted. What is the name of the command used by SMTP to transmit email over TLS?
A. OPPORTUNISTICTLS STARTTLS
B. FORCETLS
C. UPGRADETLS
Answer: B
Question No 2
Developers at your company are creating a web application which will be available for use by anyone on the Internet, The developers have taken the approach of implementing a Three-Tier Architecture for the web application. The developers are now asking you which network should the Presentation Tier (frontend web server) be placed in?
A. isolated vlan network
B. Mesh network
C. DMZ network
D. Internal network
Answer: A
Question No 3
What is the main security service a cryptographic hash provides?
A. Integrity and ease of computation
B. Message authentication and collision resistance
C. Integrity and collision resistance
D. Integrity and computational in-feasibility
Answer: D
Question No 4
A pen tester is configuring a Windows laptop for a test. In setting up Wireshark, what river and library are required to allow the NIC to work in promiscuous mode?
A. Libpcap
B. Awinpcap
C. Winprom
D. Winpcap
Answer: D
Question No 5
These hackers have limited or no training and know how to use only basic techniques or tools. What kind of hackers are we talking about?
A. Black-Hat Hackers A
B. Script Kiddies
C. White-Hat Hackers
D. Gray-Hat Hacker
Answer: C
Moreover:
Email is transmitted across the Internet using the Simple Mail Transport Protocol. SMTP does not encrypt email, leaving the information in the message vulnerable to being read by an unauthorized person. SMTP can upgrade a connection between two mail servers to use TLS. Email transmitted by SMTP over TLS is encrypted. What is the name of the command used by SMTP to transmit email over TLS?
A. OPPORTUNISTICTLS STARTTLS
B. FORCETLS
C. UPGRADETLS
Answer: B
Question No 2
Developers at your company are creating a web application which will be available for use by anyone on the Internet, The developers have taken the approach of implementing a Three-Tier Architecture for the web application. The developers are now asking you which network should the Presentation Tier (frontend web server) be placed in?
A. isolated vlan network
B. Mesh network
C. DMZ network
D. Internal network
Answer: A
Question No 3
What is the main security service a cryptographic hash provides?
A. Integrity and ease of computation
B. Message authentication and collision resistance
C. Integrity and collision resistance
D. Integrity and computational in-feasibility
Answer: D
Question No 4
A pen tester is configuring a Windows laptop for a test. In setting up Wireshark, what river and library are required to allow the NIC to work in promiscuous mode?
A. Libpcap
B. Awinpcap
C. Winprom
D. Winpcap
Answer: D
Question No 5
These hackers have limited or no training and know how to use only basic techniques or tools. What kind of hackers are we talking about?
A. Black-Hat Hackers A
B. Script Kiddies
C. White-Hat Hackers
D. Gray-Hat Hacker
Answer: C
Moreover:
Latest And Updated VMware 2VB-601 Dumps with VMware 2VB-601 Question Answers
Question No 1
What are two main advantages of using multiple disk groups within each host? (Choose two.)
A. Performance
B. Backward compatibility
C. Cost
D. Redundancy
Answer: A,D
Question No 2
What are three fundamental concepts of vSAN clusters? (Choose three.)
A. Flash devices can be shared between disk groups.
B. A maximum of seven capacity disks per disk group is supported.
C. A maximum of five disk groups per host is supported.
D. Dual socket CPU for each host is required.
E. One cache drive per disk group is required.
Answer: B,C,E
Question No 3
VMware vSAN encryption requires the use of a key management server (KMS) solution. Which Key Management Interoperability Protocol (KMP) must the KMS solution support?
A. 1.0
B. 1.3
C. 1.2
D. 1.1
Answer: D
Question No 4
What is the minimum number of components that comprise a 100GB vSAN object with a RAID-5 erasure coding policy assigned to it?
A. 3
B. 9
C. 6
D. 4
Answer: D
Question No 5
Which services for vSAN are provided by NexentaConnect?
A. Encryption and key management
B. Apache and JavaScript
C. NFS and SMB
D. iSCSI and FC
Answer: C
For further details:
What are two main advantages of using multiple disk groups within each host? (Choose two.)
A. Performance
B. Backward compatibility
C. Cost
D. Redundancy
Answer: A,D
Question No 2
What are three fundamental concepts of vSAN clusters? (Choose three.)
A. Flash devices can be shared between disk groups.
B. A maximum of seven capacity disks per disk group is supported.
C. A maximum of five disk groups per host is supported.
D. Dual socket CPU for each host is required.
E. One cache drive per disk group is required.
Answer: B,C,E
Question No 3
VMware vSAN encryption requires the use of a key management server (KMS) solution. Which Key Management Interoperability Protocol (KMP) must the KMS solution support?
A. 1.0
B. 1.3
C. 1.2
D. 1.1
Answer: D
Question No 4
What is the minimum number of components that comprise a 100GB vSAN object with a RAID-5 erasure coding policy assigned to it?
A. 3
B. 9
C. 6
D. 4
Answer: D
Question No 5
Which services for vSAN are provided by NexentaConnect?
A. Encryption and key management
B. Apache and JavaScript
C. NFS and SMB
D. iSCSI and FC
Answer: C
For further details:
Friday, 22 November 2019
Updated CompTIA SY0-501 Dumps with CompTIA SY0-501 Question Answers
Question No 1
Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server’s certificate?
A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID
Answer: D
Question No 2
A security analyst is diagnosing an incident in which a system was compromised from an external IP address. The socket identified on the firewall was traced to 207.46.130.0:6666. Which of the following should the security analyst do to determine if the compromised system still has an active connection?
A. tracert
B. netstat
C. ping
D. nslookup
Answer: B
Question No 3
Multiple organizations operating in the same vertical want to provide seamless wireless access for their employees as they visit the other organizations. Which of the following should be implemented if all the organizations use the native 802.1x client on their mobile devices?
A. Shibboleth
B. RADIUS federation
C. SAML
D. OAuth
E. OpenID connect
Answer: B
Question No 4
Which of the following BEST describes an important security advantage yielded by implementing vendor diversity?
A. Sustainability
B. Homogeneity
C. Resiliency
D. Configurability
Answer: C
Question No 5
Which of the following attacks specifically impact data availability?
A. DDoS
B. Trojan
C. MITM
D. Rootkit
Answer: A
Moreover:
Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server’s certificate?
A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID
Answer: D
Question No 2
A security analyst is diagnosing an incident in which a system was compromised from an external IP address. The socket identified on the firewall was traced to 207.46.130.0:6666. Which of the following should the security analyst do to determine if the compromised system still has an active connection?
A. tracert
B. netstat
C. ping
D. nslookup
Answer: B
Question No 3
Multiple organizations operating in the same vertical want to provide seamless wireless access for their employees as they visit the other organizations. Which of the following should be implemented if all the organizations use the native 802.1x client on their mobile devices?
A. Shibboleth
B. RADIUS federation
C. SAML
D. OAuth
E. OpenID connect
Answer: B
Question No 4
Which of the following BEST describes an important security advantage yielded by implementing vendor diversity?
A. Sustainability
B. Homogeneity
C. Resiliency
D. Configurability
Answer: C
Question No 5
Which of the following attacks specifically impact data availability?
A. DDoS
B. Trojan
C. MITM
D. Rootkit
Answer: A
Moreover:
LPI 101-400 Dumps with LPI 101-400 Question Answers | RralExamDumps
Question No 1
Which SysV init configuration file should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key combination?
A. /etc/keys
B. /proc/keys
C. /etc/inittab
D. /proc/inittab
E. /etc/reboot
Answer: C
Question No 2
Which RPM command will output the name of the package which supplied the file /etc/exports?
A. rpm -F /etc/exports
B. rpm -qf /etc/exports
C. rpm -Kl /etc/exports
D. rpm -qp /etc/exports
E. rpm -qi/etc/exports
Answer: B
Question No 3
Which of the following commands is used to update the list of available packages when using dpkg based package management?
A. apt-get update
B. apt-get upgrade
C. apt-cache update
D. apt-get refresh
E. apt-cache upgrade
Answer: A
Question No 4
Which of the following commands kills the process with the PID 123 but allows the process to "clean up" before exiting?
A. kill -PIPE 123
B. kill -KILL 123
C. kill -STOP 123
D. kill -TERM 123
Answer: D
Question No 5
When starting a program with the nice command without any additional parameters, which nice level is set for the resulting process?
A. -10
B. 0
C. 10
D. 20
Answer: C
For more details:
Which SysV init configuration file should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key combination?
A. /etc/keys
B. /proc/keys
C. /etc/inittab
D. /proc/inittab
E. /etc/reboot
Answer: C
Question No 2
Which RPM command will output the name of the package which supplied the file /etc/exports?
A. rpm -F /etc/exports
B. rpm -qf /etc/exports
C. rpm -Kl /etc/exports
D. rpm -qp /etc/exports
E. rpm -qi/etc/exports
Answer: B
Question No 3
Which of the following commands is used to update the list of available packages when using dpkg based package management?
A. apt-get update
B. apt-get upgrade
C. apt-cache update
D. apt-get refresh
E. apt-cache upgrade
Answer: A
Question No 4
Which of the following commands kills the process with the PID 123 but allows the process to "clean up" before exiting?
A. kill -PIPE 123
B. kill -KILL 123
C. kill -STOP 123
D. kill -TERM 123
Answer: D
Question No 5
When starting a program with the nice command without any additional parameters, which nice level is set for the resulting process?
A. -10
B. 0
C. 10
D. 20
Answer: C
For more details:
Believing in Microsoft AI-100 PDF Dumps Myths for Much better | RealExamDumps
Question No 1
Which two services should be implemented so that Butler can find available rooms based on the technical requirements? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. QnA Maker
B. Bing Entity Search
C. Language Understanding (LUIS)
D. Azure Search
E. Content Moderator
Answer: AC
References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/services/cognitive-services/language-understandingintelligentservice/
Question No 2
Which RBAC role should you assign to the KeyManagers group?
A. Cognitive Services Contributor
B. Security Manager
C. Cognitive Services User
D. Security Administrator
Answer: A
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles
Question No 3
You need to recommend a data storage solution that meets the technical requirements. What is the best data storage solution to recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Azure Databricks
B. Azure SQL Database
C. Azure Table storage
D. Azure Cosmos DB
Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/example-scenario/ai/commerce-chatbot
Question No 4
You need to design the Butler chatbot solution to meet the technical requirements. What is the best channel and pricing tier to use? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal Select the BEST answer.
A. standard channels that use the S1 pricing tier
B. standard channels that use the Free pricing tier
C. premium channels that use the Free pricing tier
D. premium channels that use the S1 pricing tier
Answer: D
References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/pricing/details/bot-service/
Question No 5
You have an Al application that uses keys in Azure Key Vault. Recently, a key used by the application was deleted accidentally and was unrecoverable. You need to ensure that if a key is deleted, it is retained in the key vault for 90 days. Which two features should you configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point
A. the expiration date on the keys
B. soft delete
C. purge protection
D. auditors
E. the activation date on the keys
Answer: BC
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/best-practices/data-partitioning
Moreover:
Which two services should be implemented so that Butler can find available rooms based on the technical requirements? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. QnA Maker
B. Bing Entity Search
C. Language Understanding (LUIS)
D. Azure Search
E. Content Moderator
Answer: AC
References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/services/cognitive-services/language-understandingintelligentservice/
Question No 2
Which RBAC role should you assign to the KeyManagers group?
A. Cognitive Services Contributor
B. Security Manager
C. Cognitive Services User
D. Security Administrator
Answer: A
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/built-in-roles
Question No 3
You need to recommend a data storage solution that meets the technical requirements. What is the best data storage solution to recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Azure Databricks
B. Azure SQL Database
C. Azure Table storage
D. Azure Cosmos DB
Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/example-scenario/ai/commerce-chatbot
Question No 4
You need to design the Butler chatbot solution to meet the technical requirements. What is the best channel and pricing tier to use? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal Select the BEST answer.
A. standard channels that use the S1 pricing tier
B. standard channels that use the Free pricing tier
C. premium channels that use the Free pricing tier
D. premium channels that use the S1 pricing tier
Answer: D
References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/pricing/details/bot-service/
Question No 5
You have an Al application that uses keys in Azure Key Vault. Recently, a key used by the application was deleted accidentally and was unrecoverable. You need to ensure that if a key is deleted, it is retained in the key vault for 90 days. Which two features should you configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point
A. the expiration date on the keys
B. soft delete
C. purge protection
D. auditors
E. the activation date on the keys
Answer: BC
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/best-practices/data-partitioning
Moreover:
Microsoft DP-100 Exam Dumps | Microsoft DP-100 Practice Test Questions
Question No 1
You need to resolve the local machine learning pipeline performance issue. What should you do?
A. Increase Graphic Processing Units (GPUs).
B. Increase the learning rate.
C. Increase the training iterations,
D. Increase Central Processing Units (CPUs).
Answer: A
Question No 2
You need to implement a new cost factor scenario for the ad response models as illustrated in the performance curve exhibit. Which technique should you use?
A. Set the threshold to 0.5 and retrain if weighted Kappa deviates +/- 5% from 0.45.
B. Set the threshold to 0.05 and retrain if weighted Kappa deviates +/- 5% from 0.5.
C. Set the threshold to 0.2 and retrain if weighted Kappa deviates +/- 5% from 0.6.
D. Set the threshold to 0.75 and retrain if weighted Kappa deviates +/- 5% from 0.15.
Answer: A
Question No 3
You need to implement a feature engineering strategy for the crowd sentiment local models. What should you do?
A. Apply an analysis of variance (ANOVA).
B. Apply a Pearson correlation coefficient.
C. Apply a Spearman correlation coefficient.
D. Apply a linear discriminant analysis.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The linear discriminant analysis method works only on continuous variables, not categorical or ordinal variables. Linear discriminant analysis is similar to analysis of variance (ANOVA) in that it works by comparing the means of the variables.
Scenario:
Data scientists must build notebooks in a local environment using automatic feature engineering and model building in machine learning pipelines. Experiments for local crowd sentiment models must combine local penalty detection data. All shared features for local models are continuous variables.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The Pearson correlation coefficient, sometimes called Pearson’s R test, is a statistical value that measures the linear relationship between two variables. By examining the coefficient values, you can infer something about the strength of the relationship between the two variables, and whether they are positively correlated or negatively correlated.
C: Spearman’s correlation coefficient is designed for use with non-parametric and non-normally distributed data. Spearman's coefficient is a nonparametric measure of statistical dependence between two variables, and is sometimes denoted by the Greek letter rho. The Spearman’s coefficient expresses the degree to which two variables are monotonically related. It is also called Spearman rank correlation, because it can be used with ordinal variables.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/fisher-lineardiscriminant-analysis
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/compute-linearcorrelation
Question No 4
You need to implement a model development strategy to determine a user’s tendency to respond to anad. Which technique should you use?
A. Use a Relative Expression Split module to partition the data based on centroid distance.
B. Use a Relative Expression Split module to partition the data based on distance travelled to the event.
C. Use a Split Rows module to partition the data based on distance travelled to the event.
D. Use a Split Rows module to partition the data based on centroid distance.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Split Data partitions the rows of a dataset into two distinct sets. The Relative Expression Split option in the Split Data module of Azure Machine Learning Studio is helpful when you need to divide a dataset into training and testing datasets using a numerical expression. Relative Expression Split: Use this option whenever you want to apply a condition to a number column. The number could be a date/time field, a column containing age or dollar amounts, or even a percentage. For example, you might want to divide your data set depending on the cost of the items, group people by age ranges, or separate data by a calendar date.
Scenario:
Local market segmentation models will be applied before determining a user’s propensity to respond to an advertisement. The distribution of features across training and production data are not consistent
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/split-data
For more info:
You need to resolve the local machine learning pipeline performance issue. What should you do?
A. Increase Graphic Processing Units (GPUs).
B. Increase the learning rate.
C. Increase the training iterations,
D. Increase Central Processing Units (CPUs).
Answer: A
Question No 2
You need to implement a new cost factor scenario for the ad response models as illustrated in the performance curve exhibit. Which technique should you use?
A. Set the threshold to 0.5 and retrain if weighted Kappa deviates +/- 5% from 0.45.
B. Set the threshold to 0.05 and retrain if weighted Kappa deviates +/- 5% from 0.5.
C. Set the threshold to 0.2 and retrain if weighted Kappa deviates +/- 5% from 0.6.
D. Set the threshold to 0.75 and retrain if weighted Kappa deviates +/- 5% from 0.15.
Answer: A
Question No 3
You need to implement a feature engineering strategy for the crowd sentiment local models. What should you do?
A. Apply an analysis of variance (ANOVA).
B. Apply a Pearson correlation coefficient.
C. Apply a Spearman correlation coefficient.
D. Apply a linear discriminant analysis.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The linear discriminant analysis method works only on continuous variables, not categorical or ordinal variables. Linear discriminant analysis is similar to analysis of variance (ANOVA) in that it works by comparing the means of the variables.
Scenario:
Data scientists must build notebooks in a local environment using automatic feature engineering and model building in machine learning pipelines. Experiments for local crowd sentiment models must combine local penalty detection data. All shared features for local models are continuous variables.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The Pearson correlation coefficient, sometimes called Pearson’s R test, is a statistical value that measures the linear relationship between two variables. By examining the coefficient values, you can infer something about the strength of the relationship between the two variables, and whether they are positively correlated or negatively correlated.
C: Spearman’s correlation coefficient is designed for use with non-parametric and non-normally distributed data. Spearman's coefficient is a nonparametric measure of statistical dependence between two variables, and is sometimes denoted by the Greek letter rho. The Spearman’s coefficient expresses the degree to which two variables are monotonically related. It is also called Spearman rank correlation, because it can be used with ordinal variables.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/fisher-lineardiscriminant-analysis
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/compute-linearcorrelation
Question No 4
You need to implement a model development strategy to determine a user’s tendency to respond to anad. Which technique should you use?
A. Use a Relative Expression Split module to partition the data based on centroid distance.
B. Use a Relative Expression Split module to partition the data based on distance travelled to the event.
C. Use a Split Rows module to partition the data based on distance travelled to the event.
D. Use a Split Rows module to partition the data based on centroid distance.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Split Data partitions the rows of a dataset into two distinct sets. The Relative Expression Split option in the Split Data module of Azure Machine Learning Studio is helpful when you need to divide a dataset into training and testing datasets using a numerical expression. Relative Expression Split: Use this option whenever you want to apply a condition to a number column. The number could be a date/time field, a column containing age or dollar amounts, or even a percentage. For example, you might want to divide your data set depending on the cost of the items, group people by age ranges, or separate data by a calendar date.
Scenario:
Local market segmentation models will be applied before determining a user’s propensity to respond to an advertisement. The distribution of features across training and production data are not consistent
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/split-data
For more info:
Thursday, 21 November 2019
Latest Microsoft MB-220 Dumps PDF With Practice Questions | RealExamDumps
Question No 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Which question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. The corporate marketing team has developed a branding strategy that includes five mandatory components and visual requirements that must be incorporated for all materials. The VP of Marketing, who receives a copy of each email sent, has recently seen some emails that do not adhere to all five standards. You need to ensure that future emails adhere to these standards.
Solution: You send an email to any user who created a deficient template identifying the deficiencies and request that they correct their templates.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question No 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Which question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. The corporate marketing team has developed a branding strategy that includes five mandatory components and visual requirements that must be incorporated for all materials. The VP of Marketing, who receives a copy of each email sent, has recently seen some emails that do not adhere to all five standards. You need to ensure that future emails adhere to these standards.
Solution: You create an approval process on the template records. You restrict usable templates to only those that have been approved.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Question No 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Which question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. The corporate marketing team has developed a branding strategy that includes five mandatory components and visual requirements that must be incorporated for all materials. The VP of Marketing, who receives a copy of each email sent, has recently seen some emails that do not adhere to all five standards. You need to ensure that future emails adhere to these standards.
Solution: You examine all existing templates. Upon identifying those that do not meet standards, you make appropriate adjustments to the non-conforming templates.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question No 4
Your landing page must include your privacy banner to let your customers know that you take their privacy seriously. Once enabled, where will the full text of your privacy policy be stored?
A. on your organization’s private website, with the login information needed to access it
B. on any publicly-available website, with the URL listed in the Event Management Settings
C. on your organization’s website, with the URL listed on the Default Configuration Set
D. on any publicly-available website, with the URL listed in the Landing Page Configuration Set
Answer: D
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/marketing-settings
Moreover:
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Which question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. The corporate marketing team has developed a branding strategy that includes five mandatory components and visual requirements that must be incorporated for all materials. The VP of Marketing, who receives a copy of each email sent, has recently seen some emails that do not adhere to all five standards. You need to ensure that future emails adhere to these standards.
Solution: You send an email to any user who created a deficient template identifying the deficiencies and request that they correct their templates.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question No 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Which question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. The corporate marketing team has developed a branding strategy that includes five mandatory components and visual requirements that must be incorporated for all materials. The VP of Marketing, who receives a copy of each email sent, has recently seen some emails that do not adhere to all five standards. You need to ensure that future emails adhere to these standards.
Solution: You create an approval process on the template records. You restrict usable templates to only those that have been approved.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Question No 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Which question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. The corporate marketing team has developed a branding strategy that includes five mandatory components and visual requirements that must be incorporated for all materials. The VP of Marketing, who receives a copy of each email sent, has recently seen some emails that do not adhere to all five standards. You need to ensure that future emails adhere to these standards.
Solution: You examine all existing templates. Upon identifying those that do not meet standards, you make appropriate adjustments to the non-conforming templates.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question No 4
Your landing page must include your privacy banner to let your customers know that you take their privacy seriously. Once enabled, where will the full text of your privacy policy be stored?
A. on your organization’s private website, with the login information needed to access it
B. on any publicly-available website, with the URL listed in the Event Management Settings
C. on your organization’s website, with the URL listed on the Default Configuration Set
D. on any publicly-available website, with the URL listed in the Landing Page Configuration Set
Answer: D
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/dynamics365/customer-engagement/marketing/marketing-settings
Moreover:
Up to Date Microsoft MB-310 Dumps PDF | 100% Success with Practice Questions
Question No 1
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company is preparing to complete yearly budgets. The company plans to use the Budget module in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for budget management You need to create the new budgets.
Solution: Create budget plans for multiple scenarios.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Question No 2
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company is preparing to complete yearly budgets. The company plans to use-pie Budget module in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for budget management You need to create the new budgets.
Solution: Create budget plans to define the revenues for a budget
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question No 3
A client has multiple legal entities set up in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. All companies and data reside in Finance and Operations, The client currently uses a separate reporting tool to perform their financial consolidation and eliminations, They want to use Finance and Operations instead. You need to configure the system and correctly perform eliminations.
Solution: Create a separate company in which you manually create the eliminations. Then, use that company in Financial reporting or in the consolidation process.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unifiedoperations/ financials/budgeting/consolidation-elimination-overview
Question No 4
A client has multiple legal entities set up in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. All companies and data reside in Finance and Operations, The client currently uses a separate reporting tool to perform their financial consolidation and eliminations. They want to use Finance and Operations instead. You need to configure the system and correctly perform eliminations.
Solution: Select Consolidate online in Finance and Operations. Include eliminations during the process or as a proposal. Setup the transactions to post in the legal entity configured for consolidations.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unifiedoperations/ financials/budgeting/consolidation-elimination-overview
Question No 5
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company is preparing to complete yearly budgets. The company plans to use the Budget module in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for budget management You need to create the new budgets.
Solution: Combine budgets from multiple legal entities to a master budget.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Moreover:
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company is preparing to complete yearly budgets. The company plans to use the Budget module in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for budget management You need to create the new budgets.
Solution: Create budget plans for multiple scenarios.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Question No 2
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company is preparing to complete yearly budgets. The company plans to use-pie Budget module in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for budget management You need to create the new budgets.
Solution: Create budget plans to define the revenues for a budget
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question No 3
A client has multiple legal entities set up in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. All companies and data reside in Finance and Operations, The client currently uses a separate reporting tool to perform their financial consolidation and eliminations, They want to use Finance and Operations instead. You need to configure the system and correctly perform eliminations.
Solution: Create a separate company in which you manually create the eliminations. Then, use that company in Financial reporting or in the consolidation process.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unifiedoperations/ financials/budgeting/consolidation-elimination-overview
Question No 4
A client has multiple legal entities set up in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. All companies and data reside in Finance and Operations, The client currently uses a separate reporting tool to perform their financial consolidation and eliminations. They want to use Finance and Operations instead. You need to configure the system and correctly perform eliminations.
Solution: Select Consolidate online in Finance and Operations. Include eliminations during the process or as a proposal. Setup the transactions to post in the legal entity configured for consolidations.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unifiedoperations/ financials/budgeting/consolidation-elimination-overview
Question No 5
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A company is preparing to complete yearly budgets. The company plans to use the Budget module in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations for budget management You need to create the new budgets.
Solution: Combine budgets from multiple legal entities to a master budget.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Moreover:
Verified Microsoft MB-230 Exam Dumps PDF | Microsoft MB-230 Exam Study Material
Question No 1
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator creating surveys for Voice of the Customer (VoC). You need to ensure that VoC survey responses trigger an escalation in support.Which workflow should you use?
A. VoC – Process Survey Response
B. VoC – Close Survey Activity
C. VoC – Process NPS Response
D. VoC – Process Face Response
Answer: A
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-of-customer/plansurvey
Question No 2
You are creating surveys for Voice of the Customer (VoC). You need to configure VoC to ensure that recipients can unsubscribe to surveys. Which two survey features should you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Add an Unsubscribe check box after each question.
B. Set the Allow unsubscribe setting to Yes.
C. Give users the option to unsubscribe from different features of the survey.
D. Configure the survey to display when Dynamics 365 customers receive email and enable the Unsubscribe option.
Answer: BD
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-ofcustomer/designadvancedsurvey# add-the-unsubscribe-option-to-a-survey
Question No 3
You send surveys to customers who have opened cases within the past month. You need to send a summary of the survey results to individuals who do not have a Dynamics 365 license. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Run the summary report. Export the report to Microsoft Excel. Send the Excel file to the users.
B. Run the survey summary report. Send a link to the report from within Dynamics 365.
C. Create a dashboard of the survey summary reports and share the dashboards with the users.
D. Create a view with the data, and then email a link.
E. Run the survey summary report. Print the report to a PDF file. Send the PDF file to the users.
Answer: AE
Question No 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator creating surveys for Voice of the Customer. You must display the question: Have you used the product before? If the response is Yes, you must display additional questions concerning the product. If the answer is No, you must display a different set of questions concerning other products. You need to select a survey feature to use. Which survey feature should you use?
A. Answer tag
B. Response routing
C. Piping
D. List of ratings
E. Basic
Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-of-customer/design advancedsurvey#design-interactive-surveys-by-using-response-routing
Question No 5
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator creating surveys for Voice of the Customer. You need to create a customer service satisfaction survey and embed it on a website. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Copy the portal web link and paste it into your website.
B. Copy the URL from the Anonymous link field and paste it into your website.
C. On the Voice of the Customer survey, select Run in iFrame.
D. Copy the HTML code from the iFrame URL field and paste it on your website.
Answer: CD
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-ofcustomer/ distribute-survey
For further details:
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator creating surveys for Voice of the Customer (VoC). You need to ensure that VoC survey responses trigger an escalation in support.Which workflow should you use?
A. VoC – Process Survey Response
B. VoC – Close Survey Activity
C. VoC – Process NPS Response
D. VoC – Process Face Response
Answer: A
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-of-customer/plansurvey
Question No 2
You are creating surveys for Voice of the Customer (VoC). You need to configure VoC to ensure that recipients can unsubscribe to surveys. Which two survey features should you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Add an Unsubscribe check box after each question.
B. Set the Allow unsubscribe setting to Yes.
C. Give users the option to unsubscribe from different features of the survey.
D. Configure the survey to display when Dynamics 365 customers receive email and enable the Unsubscribe option.
Answer: BD
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-ofcustomer/designadvancedsurvey# add-the-unsubscribe-option-to-a-survey
Question No 3
You send surveys to customers who have opened cases within the past month. You need to send a summary of the survey results to individuals who do not have a Dynamics 365 license. What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Run the summary report. Export the report to Microsoft Excel. Send the Excel file to the users.
B. Run the survey summary report. Send a link to the report from within Dynamics 365.
C. Create a dashboard of the survey summary reports and share the dashboards with the users.
D. Create a view with the data, and then email a link.
E. Run the survey summary report. Print the report to a PDF file. Send the PDF file to the users.
Answer: AE
Question No 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator creating surveys for Voice of the Customer. You must display the question: Have you used the product before? If the response is Yes, you must display additional questions concerning the product. If the answer is No, you must display a different set of questions concerning other products. You need to select a survey feature to use. Which survey feature should you use?
A. Answer tag
B. Response routing
C. Piping
D. List of ratings
E. Basic
Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-of-customer/design advancedsurvey#design-interactive-surveys-by-using-response-routing
Question No 5
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator creating surveys for Voice of the Customer. You need to create a customer service satisfaction survey and embed it on a website. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Copy the portal web link and paste it into your website.
B. Copy the URL from the Anonymous link field and paste it into your website.
C. On the Voice of the Customer survey, select Run in iFrame.
D. Copy the HTML code from the iFrame URL field and paste it on your website.
Answer: CD
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-ofcustomer/ distribute-survey
For further details:
Download MB-210 Dumps Questions & Answers | MB-210 Dumps PDF| RealExamDumps
Question No 1
You work for a company using Dynamics 365 for Sales. When customers call the company, they must provide their quote number. Customers report that Quote numbers are too long. You need to shorten quote numbers to the minimum possible length. What should you do?
A. Change the field type from auto number to decimal number
B. Reduce the auto number prefix to one character
C. Reduce the suffix length to four characters
D. Ensure that the prefix setting is read-only
Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/change-autonumberprefixcontractcasearticle-quote-order-invoice-campaign-category-knowledge-articles
Question No 2
You are a Dynamics 365 administrator. A sales manager changes the target goal for a salesperson from $26,000.00 to $20,000.00. However, The currency symbol changes from $ to £. Other managers are not experiencing this issue. You need to fix the currency symbol for the sales manager. What should you change?
A. the default currency in personal options
B. the currencies in settings
C. the currency display option in system settings
D. the current format in personal options
Answer: A
Question No 3
You are Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator. Sales representatives must enter estimated revenue only as an exception. You need to ensure that estimated revenue for opportunities is automatically calculated. What should you do?
A. In the System Settings sales tab, change the default revenue type to System Calculated
B. In custom controls, change the default revenue setting to System Calculated
C. In Personalization settings for each user, change the default revenue type to System Calculated
D. In Opportunities, change the default value of the revenue type to System Calculated
Answer: D
For more details:
You work for a company using Dynamics 365 for Sales. When customers call the company, they must provide their quote number. Customers report that Quote numbers are too long. You need to shorten quote numbers to the minimum possible length. What should you do?
A. Change the field type from auto number to decimal number
B. Reduce the auto number prefix to one character
C. Reduce the suffix length to four characters
D. Ensure that the prefix setting is read-only
Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/change-autonumberprefixcontractcasearticle-quote-order-invoice-campaign-category-knowledge-articles
Question No 2
You are a Dynamics 365 administrator. A sales manager changes the target goal for a salesperson from $26,000.00 to $20,000.00. However, The currency symbol changes from $ to £. Other managers are not experiencing this issue. You need to fix the currency symbol for the sales manager. What should you change?
A. the default currency in personal options
B. the currencies in settings
C. the currency display option in system settings
D. the current format in personal options
Answer: A
Question No 3
You are Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator. Sales representatives must enter estimated revenue only as an exception. You need to ensure that estimated revenue for opportunities is automatically calculated. What should you do?
A. In the System Settings sales tab, change the default revenue type to System Calculated
B. In custom controls, change the default revenue setting to System Calculated
C. In Personalization settings for each user, change the default revenue type to System Calculated
D. In Opportunities, change the default value of the revenue type to System Calculated
Answer: D
For more details:
Valid Microsoft MB-330 Dumps with Microsoft MB-330 Practice Question Answers
Question No 1
A company needs to create new items that can be company owned or vendor owned. You need to create and set up the items so that they can be used as company owned or consignment. What should you do?
A. Assign a non-stock service item model group
B. Assign a moving average costing inventory model
C. Activate batch dimension and assign a standard costing inventory model
D. Activate owner dimension and assign a standard costing inventory model
Answer: D
Question No 2
A company uses trade agreements for their customers. Prices for some customers must round to the nearest US dollar. A customer reports that prices do not round to the nearest US dollar as required. You need to resolve the issue. In Trade agreement journals, which option should you use?
A. Adjustment
B. View smart rounding
C. Validate all lines
D. Apply smart rounding
E. Apply smart rounding
Answer: D
Question No 3
A company creates several item costing versions. All new and existing items have costs associated with them. After applying the costs, the company notices the activation date has not been updated. You need to update the items to the current date for activation. What should you do?
A. Set the item cost record status to Active
B. Set the from date to today and leave the item cost record status at Pending
C. Set the item cost record status to Pending
D. Set the cost price and date of price on the released product
Answer: A
Question No 4
An employee at a company releases a new product from the Released product maintenance workspace. An employee in another department is unable to add the product to a sales order. You determine that dimension groups have not been applied to the product. You need to ensure that the product can be added to the sales order. Which two inventory dimension groups should you add to the product? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Tracking dimension group
B. Coverage group
C. Product dimension group
D. Storage dimension group
Answer: C, D
Moreover:
A company needs to create new items that can be company owned or vendor owned. You need to create and set up the items so that they can be used as company owned or consignment. What should you do?
A. Assign a non-stock service item model group
B. Assign a moving average costing inventory model
C. Activate batch dimension and assign a standard costing inventory model
D. Activate owner dimension and assign a standard costing inventory model
Answer: D
Question No 2
A company uses trade agreements for their customers. Prices for some customers must round to the nearest US dollar. A customer reports that prices do not round to the nearest US dollar as required. You need to resolve the issue. In Trade agreement journals, which option should you use?
A. Adjustment
B. View smart rounding
C. Validate all lines
D. Apply smart rounding
E. Apply smart rounding
Answer: D
Question No 3
A company creates several item costing versions. All new and existing items have costs associated with them. After applying the costs, the company notices the activation date has not been updated. You need to update the items to the current date for activation. What should you do?
A. Set the item cost record status to Active
B. Set the from date to today and leave the item cost record status at Pending
C. Set the item cost record status to Pending
D. Set the cost price and date of price on the released product
Answer: A
Question No 4
An employee at a company releases a new product from the Released product maintenance workspace. An employee in another department is unable to add the product to a sales order. You determine that dimension groups have not been applied to the product. You need to ensure that the product can be added to the sales order. Which two inventory dimension groups should you add to the product? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Tracking dimension group
B. Coverage group
C. Product dimension group
D. Storage dimension group
Answer: C, D
Moreover:
Microsoft MB-320 Dumps | Updated Microsoft MB-320 Dumps PDF for IT Candidates
Question No 1
A company produces homeopathic lotions for pain relief. The lotions use a combination of ProductA and ProductB. ProductA is the primary ingredient. You use ProductB to adjust the concentration of active ingredients in the lotion. You need to ensure that the lotion final product has a consistent concentration of anti-inflammatory agents. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Set the formula line type of ProductB to Active.
B. Set the formula line type of ProductA to Active.
C. Set the formula line type of ProductB to Compensating.
D. Set the formula line type of ProductA to Compensating.
E. Set the formula line type of ProductC to None.
Answer: BC
Question No 2
A company produces generic and name-brand paper plates in the same factory using standard costing and using the same Bill of materials and routes to produce both products. The finance and production teams want a way to view individual raw material consumption costs in the ledger. You need to add a production group to the finished good to control postings to the ledger. What should you do?
A. Create a production group for the finished good item.
B. Update the cost of the generic finished good item.
C. Create a production pool for the finished good item.
D. Create a new Bill of materials with alternate costs for the raw material.
Answer: C
Question No 3
You have a product that can be manufactured on two different production lines in the same warehouse. You create resources and then create individual input locations for the resources. You create two routes. Each route uses different resources. Materials are staged for consumption in different locations based on the resources being utilized for production. You need to set up the formula to consume the goods from the correct line-side location. What should you do?
A. Select resource consumption and the operation for each line.
B. Select a warehouse and consumption operation for each line.
C. Select the plan group and consumption operation for each line.
D. Specify a site in the formula header.
Answer: A
Question No 4
A company that produces rubber hose using Discreet orders accounts for raw material scrap after report as finished though inventory movement journals. The company has noticed that most of the scrap that is recorded is due to start up that feeds the hose to the finishing process. In addition, the amount of scrap that is recorded is consistent regardless of the amount of hose being produced. You need to account for material lost during startup. What should you do?
A. Do a case study for the scrap items and enter the average amount of scrap as a separate line items on the Bill of materials.
B. Enter the amount of scrap that is consumed as constant scrap in the Bill of materials.
C. Enter the amount of scrap that is consumed as variable scrap in the Bill of materials.
D. Enter the consumption amount on the line to match the actual amount used.
Answer: C
Furthermore:
A company produces homeopathic lotions for pain relief. The lotions use a combination of ProductA and ProductB. ProductA is the primary ingredient. You use ProductB to adjust the concentration of active ingredients in the lotion. You need to ensure that the lotion final product has a consistent concentration of anti-inflammatory agents. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Set the formula line type of ProductB to Active.
B. Set the formula line type of ProductA to Active.
C. Set the formula line type of ProductB to Compensating.
D. Set the formula line type of ProductA to Compensating.
E. Set the formula line type of ProductC to None.
Answer: BC
Question No 2
A company produces generic and name-brand paper plates in the same factory using standard costing and using the same Bill of materials and routes to produce both products. The finance and production teams want a way to view individual raw material consumption costs in the ledger. You need to add a production group to the finished good to control postings to the ledger. What should you do?
A. Create a production group for the finished good item.
B. Update the cost of the generic finished good item.
C. Create a production pool for the finished good item.
D. Create a new Bill of materials with alternate costs for the raw material.
Answer: C
Question No 3
You have a product that can be manufactured on two different production lines in the same warehouse. You create resources and then create individual input locations for the resources. You create two routes. Each route uses different resources. Materials are staged for consumption in different locations based on the resources being utilized for production. You need to set up the formula to consume the goods from the correct line-side location. What should you do?
A. Select resource consumption and the operation for each line.
B. Select a warehouse and consumption operation for each line.
C. Select the plan group and consumption operation for each line.
D. Specify a site in the formula header.
Answer: A
Question No 4
A company that produces rubber hose using Discreet orders accounts for raw material scrap after report as finished though inventory movement journals. The company has noticed that most of the scrap that is recorded is due to start up that feeds the hose to the finishing process. In addition, the amount of scrap that is recorded is consistent regardless of the amount of hose being produced. You need to account for material lost during startup. What should you do?
A. Do a case study for the scrap items and enter the average amount of scrap as a separate line items on the Bill of materials.
B. Enter the amount of scrap that is consumed as constant scrap in the Bill of materials.
C. Enter the amount of scrap that is consumed as variable scrap in the Bill of materials.
D. Enter the consumption amount on the line to match the actual amount used.
Answer: C
Furthermore:
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Question No 1
You need to select a Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement application to help your organization efficiently track, manage, and deliver project-based services. Which application should you select?
A. Customer Service
B. Field Service
C. Project Service automation
D. Sales
Answer: C
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/project-service/overview
Question No 2
You are an administrator in Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement apps. You need to create solution components using customization tools. Which two components can be included in a solution? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. audit logs
B. sitemap
C. team
D. business unit
E. global option sets
Answer: BE
Question No 3
You are a system administrator for an organization that has Dynamics 365 for Sales and Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. A user who logs in to the Microsoft 365 portal sees only Dynamics 365 for Sales. You need to enable the user to see Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. In Dynamics 365 model driven apps, enable the features.
B. In PowerApps, create the application.
C. Type the URL of the web application for Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.
D. Assign the correct security role to the user's ID
E. Add the correct licensing to the user ID in Active Directory.
Answer: DE
Furthermore:
You need to select a Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement application to help your organization efficiently track, manage, and deliver project-based services. Which application should you select?
A. Customer Service
B. Field Service
C. Project Service automation
D. Sales
Answer: C
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/project-service/overview
Question No 2
You are an administrator in Dynamics 365 for Customer Engagement apps. You need to create solution components using customization tools. Which two components can be included in a solution? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. audit logs
B. sitemap
C. team
D. business unit
E. global option sets
Answer: BE
Question No 3
You are a system administrator for an organization that has Dynamics 365 for Sales and Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. A user who logs in to the Microsoft 365 portal sees only Dynamics 365 for Sales. You need to enable the user to see Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. In Dynamics 365 model driven apps, enable the features.
B. In PowerApps, create the application.
C. Type the URL of the web application for Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.
D. Assign the correct security role to the user's ID
E. Add the correct licensing to the user ID in Active Directory.
Answer: DE
Furthermore:
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Question No 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator. You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create the Holiday Schedule.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question No 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator. You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type. 4) Create Business Closures.
5) Create Bookable Resources with Hourly Rates.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question No 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator. You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create Business Closures.
5) Create Bookable Resources with Hourly Rates and Work Hours.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Question No 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator. You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to automatically generate work orders based on agreements, and send invoices on a recurring basis by customer.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes.
1) Create Agreement
2) Define Agreement Products
3) Set Booking Recurrence
4) Create Invoice Setup
5) Define Invoice Recurrence
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question No 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator. You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to automatically generate work orders based on agreements, and send invoices on a recurring basis by customer.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes.
1) Create Agreement
2) Define Booking Setup
3) Create Invoice Setup
4) Set Auto Generate Invoice = Yes
5) Populate Generate Agreement Invoices X Days in Advance
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Furthermore:
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator. You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create the Holiday Schedule.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question No 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator. You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type. 4) Create Business Closures.
5) Create Bookable Resources with Hourly Rates.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question No 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator. You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to accurately capture the cost of work order bookings.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes:
1) Create Resource Pay Types for regular, holiday, overtime, travel, and breaks.
2) Assign an Hourly Markup percentage to each Resource Pay Type.
3) Assign Resource Pay Types to the applicable Pay Type.
4) Create Business Closures.
5) Create Bookable Resources with Hourly Rates and Work Hours.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
Question No 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator. You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to automatically generate work orders based on agreements, and send invoices on a recurring basis by customer.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes.
1) Create Agreement
2) Define Agreement Products
3) Set Booking Recurrence
4) Create Invoice Setup
5) Define Invoice Recurrence
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Question No 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are a Dynamics 365 for Field Service system administrator. You are configuring a new instance of Dynamics 365 for Field Service. The organization needs to automatically generate work orders based on agreements, and send invoices on a recurring basis by customer.
Solution: You implement the following configuration changes.
1) Create Agreement
2) Define Booking Setup
3) Create Invoice Setup
4) Set Auto Generate Invoice = Yes
5) Populate Generate Agreement Invoices X Days in Advance
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B
Furthermore:
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Question No 1
You need to ensure that attendance records contain the proper default values. What should you do?
A. a workflow
B. a field mapping
C. a business process flow
D. a business rule
Answer: B
Question No 2
You need to move changes to the production environment. What should you do?
A. Import an unmanaged solution with a default publisher.
B. Import a managed solution with a default publisher.
C. Import a managed solution with a custom publisher.
D. Import an unmanaged solution with a custom publisher.
Answer: C
Question No 3
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. You create a custom entity named Buildings and add it to the Sales app. When a user views the Buildings form, a held for Location is missing. You create the field, but the user cannot see it. You need to make the Location field visible to the user. What should you do?
A. Change privileges to the user's security role.
B. Publish customization.
C. Create a new Buildings form.
D. Add the Location field to the Buildings view.
Answer: B
Question No 4
You manage the Dynamics 365 for Customer Service environment for an organization. Microsoft SharePoint will not be deployed in the environment for a year. You need to integrate Microsoft Office 365 solutions with the Dynamics 365 instance to help the sales team with internal collaboration efforts. Which three solutions can you currently implement? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Microsoft OneDrive for Business
B. Microsoft Yammer
C. Microsoft OneNote
D. Microsoft Skype for Business
E. Microsoft Exchange Online
Answer: BDE
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/add-office-365-online-services
Question No 5
You need to set up annual surveys. What should you do?
A. Enable Voice of the Customer.
B. Use dialogs.
C. Enable Customer Insights.
D. Install a custom workflow solution.
Answer: A
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-of-customer/designbasicsurvey
Moreover:
You need to ensure that attendance records contain the proper default values. What should you do?
A. a workflow
B. a field mapping
C. a business process flow
D. a business rule
Answer: B
Question No 2
You need to move changes to the production environment. What should you do?
A. Import an unmanaged solution with a default publisher.
B. Import a managed solution with a default publisher.
C. Import a managed solution with a custom publisher.
D. Import an unmanaged solution with a custom publisher.
Answer: C
Question No 3
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. You create a custom entity named Buildings and add it to the Sales app. When a user views the Buildings form, a held for Location is missing. You create the field, but the user cannot see it. You need to make the Location field visible to the user. What should you do?
A. Change privileges to the user's security role.
B. Publish customization.
C. Create a new Buildings form.
D. Add the Location field to the Buildings view.
Answer: B
Question No 4
You manage the Dynamics 365 for Customer Service environment for an organization. Microsoft SharePoint will not be deployed in the environment for a year. You need to integrate Microsoft Office 365 solutions with the Dynamics 365 instance to help the sales team with internal collaboration efforts. Which three solutions can you currently implement? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Microsoft OneDrive for Business
B. Microsoft Yammer
C. Microsoft OneNote
D. Microsoft Skype for Business
E. Microsoft Exchange Online
Answer: BDE
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/add-office-365-online-services
Question No 5
You need to set up annual surveys. What should you do?
A. Enable Voice of the Customer.
B. Use dialogs.
C. Enable Customer Insights.
D. Install a custom workflow solution.
Answer: A
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/voice-of-customer/designbasicsurvey
Moreover:
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Question No 1
On which server should you install the Azure ATP sensor?
A. Server 1
B. Server 2
C. Server 3
D. Server 4
E. Server 5
Answer: A
Question No 2
You need to meet the compliance requirements for the Windows 10 devices. What should you create from the Intune admin center?
A. a device compliance policy
B. a device configuration profile
C. an application policy
D. an app configuration policy
Answer: D
Question No 3
You need to ensure that the support technicians can meet the technical requirement for the Montreal office mobile devices. What is the minimum of dedicated support technicians required?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 7
D. 31
Answer: B
Question No 4
You need to create the Microsoft Store for Business. Which user can create the store?
A. User2
B. User3
C. User4
D. User5
Answer: C
Question No 5
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription and an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and are joined to the domain. You need to enable Windows Defender Credential Guard on all the computers. What should you do?
A. From the Security & Compliance admin center, configure the DKIM signatures for the domain
B. domain controller, create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables the Restrict delegation of credentials to remote servers setting.
C. From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a device security policy.
D. From a domain controller, create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables the Turn On Virtualization Based Security setting.
Answer: A
Furthermore:
On which server should you install the Azure ATP sensor?
A. Server 1
B. Server 2
C. Server 3
D. Server 4
E. Server 5
Answer: A
Question No 2
You need to meet the compliance requirements for the Windows 10 devices. What should you create from the Intune admin center?
A. a device compliance policy
B. a device configuration profile
C. an application policy
D. an app configuration policy
Answer: D
Question No 3
You need to ensure that the support technicians can meet the technical requirement for the Montreal office mobile devices. What is the minimum of dedicated support technicians required?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 7
D. 31
Answer: B
Question No 4
You need to create the Microsoft Store for Business. Which user can create the store?
A. User2
B. User3
C. User4
D. User5
Answer: C
Question No 5
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription and an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise and are joined to the domain. You need to enable Windows Defender Credential Guard on all the computers. What should you do?
A. From the Security & Compliance admin center, configure the DKIM signatures for the domain
B. domain controller, create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables the Restrict delegation of credentials to remote servers setting.
C. From the Security & Compliance admin center, create a device security policy.
D. From a domain controller, create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables the Turn On Virtualization Based Security setting.
Answer: A
Furthermore:
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Question No 1
You need to recommend a solution to protect the sign-ins of Admin1 and Admin2. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a device compliance policy
B. an access review
C. a user risk policy
D. a sign-in risk policy
Answer: C
Question No 2
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical and security requirements for sharing data with the partners. What should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create an access review.
B. Assign the Global administrator role to User1.
C. Assign the Guest inviter role to User1.
D. Modify the External collaboration settings in the Azure Active Directory admin center.
Answer: CD
Question No 3
You need to create Group2. What are two possible ways to create the group?
A. an Office 365 group in the Microsoft 365 admin center
B. a mail-enabled security group in the Microsoft 365 admin center
C. a security group in the Microsoft 365 admin center
D. a distribution list in the Microsoft 365 admin center
E. a security group in the Azure AD admin center
Answer: CE
Question No 4
Which IP address space should you include in the MFA configuration?
A. 131.107.83.0/28
B. 192.168.16.0/20
C. 172.16.0.0/24
D. 192.168.0.0/20
Answer: B
Question No 5
You need to implement Windows Defender ATP to meet the security requirements. What should you do?
A. Configure port mirroring
B. Create the ForceDefenderPassiveMode registry setting
C. Download and install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent
D. Run WindowsDefenderATPOnboardingScript.cmd
Answer: C
Moreover:
You need to recommend a solution to protect the sign-ins of Admin1 and Admin2. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a device compliance policy
B. an access review
C. a user risk policy
D. a sign-in risk policy
Answer: C
Question No 2
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical and security requirements for sharing data with the partners. What should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create an access review.
B. Assign the Global administrator role to User1.
C. Assign the Guest inviter role to User1.
D. Modify the External collaboration settings in the Azure Active Directory admin center.
Answer: CD
Question No 3
You need to create Group2. What are two possible ways to create the group?
A. an Office 365 group in the Microsoft 365 admin center
B. a mail-enabled security group in the Microsoft 365 admin center
C. a security group in the Microsoft 365 admin center
D. a distribution list in the Microsoft 365 admin center
E. a security group in the Azure AD admin center
Answer: CE
Question No 4
Which IP address space should you include in the MFA configuration?
A. 131.107.83.0/28
B. 192.168.16.0/20
C. 172.16.0.0/24
D. 192.168.0.0/20
Answer: B
Question No 5
You need to implement Windows Defender ATP to meet the security requirements. What should you do?
A. Configure port mirroring
B. Create the ForceDefenderPassiveMode registry setting
C. Download and install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent
D. Run WindowsDefenderATPOnboardingScript.cmd
Answer: C
Moreover:
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Question No 1
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 server. One of the databases on the server supports a highly active OLTP application. Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data into the application. You need to identify which queries are taking longer than 1 second to run over an extended period of time. What should you do?
A. use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of more than 1,000.
B. Use sp_configure to set a value for blocked process threshold. Create an extended event session.
C. Use the Job Activity monitor to review all processes that are actively running. Review the Job History to find out the duration of each step.
D. Run the sp_who command from a query window.
E. Run the DBCC TRACEON 1222 command from a query window and review the SQL Server event log.
Answer: A
Question No 2
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 database. You need to ensure that the size of the transaction log file does not exceed 2 GB. What should you do?
A. Execute sp_configure 'max log size', 2G.
B. use the ALTER DATABASE...SET LOGFILE command along with the maxsize parameter.
C. In SQL Server Management Studio, right-click the instance and select Database Settings. Set the maximum size of the file for the transaction log.
D. in SQL Server Management Studio, right-click the database, select Properties, and then click Files. Open the Transaction log Autogrowth window and set the maximum size of the file.
Answer: B
Question No 3
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 server. The MSSQLSERVER service uses a domain account named CONTOSO\SQLService. You plan to configure Instant File Initialization. You need to ensure that Data File Autogrow operations use Instant File Initialization. What should you do? Choose all that apply.
A. Restart the SQL Server Agent Service.
B. Disable snapshot isolation.
C. Restart the SQL Server Service.
D. Add the CONTOSO\SQLService account to the Perform Volume Maintenance Tasks local security policy.
E. Add the CONTOSO\SQLService account to the Server Operators fixed server role.
F. Enable snapshot isolation.
Answer: C,D
Question No 4
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 failover cluster that contains two nodes named Node A and Node B. A single instance of SQL Server is installed on the cluster. An additional node named Node C has been added to the existing cluster. You need to ensure that the SQL Server instance can use all nodes of the cluster. What should you do?
A. Run the New SQL Server stand-alone installation Wizard on Node C.
B. Run the Add Node to SQL Server Failover Cluster Wizard on Node C.
C. Use Node B to install SQL Server on Node C.
D. Use Node A to install SQL Server on Node C.
Answer: B
Question No 5
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 instance. After a routine shutdown, the drive that contains tempdb fails. You need to be able to start the SQL Server. What should you do?
A. Modify tempdb location in startup parameters.
B. Start SQL Server in minimal configuration mode.
C. Start SQL Server in single-user mode.
D. Configure SQL Server to bypass Windows application logging.
Answer: B
For further details:
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 server. One of the databases on the server supports a highly active OLTP application. Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data into the application. You need to identify which queries are taking longer than 1 second to run over an extended period of time. What should you do?
A. use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of more than 1,000.
B. Use sp_configure to set a value for blocked process threshold. Create an extended event session.
C. Use the Job Activity monitor to review all processes that are actively running. Review the Job History to find out the duration of each step.
D. Run the sp_who command from a query window.
E. Run the DBCC TRACEON 1222 command from a query window and review the SQL Server event log.
Answer: A
Question No 2
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 database. You need to ensure that the size of the transaction log file does not exceed 2 GB. What should you do?
A. Execute sp_configure 'max log size', 2G.
B. use the ALTER DATABASE...SET LOGFILE command along with the maxsize parameter.
C. In SQL Server Management Studio, right-click the instance and select Database Settings. Set the maximum size of the file for the transaction log.
D. in SQL Server Management Studio, right-click the database, select Properties, and then click Files. Open the Transaction log Autogrowth window and set the maximum size of the file.
Answer: B
Question No 3
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 server. The MSSQLSERVER service uses a domain account named CONTOSO\SQLService. You plan to configure Instant File Initialization. You need to ensure that Data File Autogrow operations use Instant File Initialization. What should you do? Choose all that apply.
A. Restart the SQL Server Agent Service.
B. Disable snapshot isolation.
C. Restart the SQL Server Service.
D. Add the CONTOSO\SQLService account to the Perform Volume Maintenance Tasks local security policy.
E. Add the CONTOSO\SQLService account to the Server Operators fixed server role.
F. Enable snapshot isolation.
Answer: C,D
Question No 4
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 failover cluster that contains two nodes named Node A and Node B. A single instance of SQL Server is installed on the cluster. An additional node named Node C has been added to the existing cluster. You need to ensure that the SQL Server instance can use all nodes of the cluster. What should you do?
A. Run the New SQL Server stand-alone installation Wizard on Node C.
B. Run the Add Node to SQL Server Failover Cluster Wizard on Node C.
C. Use Node B to install SQL Server on Node C.
D. Use Node A to install SQL Server on Node C.
Answer: B
Question No 5
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 instance. After a routine shutdown, the drive that contains tempdb fails. You need to be able to start the SQL Server. What should you do?
A. Modify tempdb location in startup parameters.
B. Start SQL Server in minimal configuration mode.
C. Start SQL Server in single-user mode.
D. Configure SQL Server to bypass Windows application logging.
Answer: B
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